John 1:1, the word was "a god."

[onewithhim]

Does anyone here have the list of Bible versions that say of John 1:1c "the word was a god"? I know there are several.

[Bible_Student]

TThe point is that the same words are used at John 1:1b and Acts 28:3-6, yet John 1:1b is mistranslated into "was God." To be in harmony with each other, Acts and John 1:1b should both say "a god." The Greek words are the same.

Should Luke 4:8 and 24:52 both say "worship" in order to be in harmony with each other? The Greek words are the same.

Semantics and grammar represent distinct aspects of language, each with its own set of rules.

[Difflugia]

TThe point is that the same words are used at John 1:1b and Acts 28:3-6, yet John 1:1b is mistranslated into "was God." To be in harmony with each other, Acts and John 1:1b should both say "a god." The Greek words are the same.

Should Luke 4:8 and 24:52 both say "worship" in order to be in harmony with each other? The Greek words are the same.

Semantics and grammar represent distinct aspects of language, each with its own set of rules.

I certainly agree with you, but how does that affect onewithhim's argument?

[Capbook]

[Replying to Bible_Student in post #25]

Examine Acts 28:6. It has the exact Greek abbrev. as found in John 1:1b for God. But this is translated as "a god." And in Sinaiticus it is abbreviated (along with over bar) exactly as it is in John 1:1b.

KJV
Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god.

The context talked about apostle Paul, is there any credence that Paul is divine throughout the Bible?
That has nothing to do with the "Word" the subject matter of John 1:1.

Acts 28:3-6
3 But when Paul had gathered a bundle of sticks and laid them on the fire, a viper came out because of the heat and fastened itself on his hand. 4 When the natives saw the creature hanging from his hand, they began saying to one another, " Undoubtedly this man is a murderer, and though he has been saved from the sea, justice has not allowed him to live." 5 However he shook the creature off into the fire and suffered no harm. 6 But they were expecting that he was about to swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But after they had waited a long time and had seen nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and began to say that he was a god.
NASU

The point is that the same words are used at John 1:1b and Acts 28:3-6, yet John 1:1b is mistranslated into "was God." To be in harmony with each other, Acts and John 1:1b should both say "a god." The Greek words are the same.

I believe the mistranslation happen when we insert "a" in John 1:1. The NASB has been updated to the NASB 2020, a word for word translation which further improves accuracy where possible, modernizes language, and improves readability while maintaining faithful accuracy to the original texts. And besides comparing those text of different context and not related is unfitting.

(NASB+)  R1 In the beginning G746  was  R2 the Word G3056 , and the Word G3056  was  R3 with God G2316 , and  R4 the Word G3056  was God G2316 .
(NASB+) Now G1161  they were expecting G4328  that he was G3195  going G3195  to G3195  swell G4092b  up G4092b  or G2228  suddenly G869  fall G2667  down G2667  dead G3498 . But after they had waited G4328  a long G4183  time and had seen G2334  nothing G3367  unusual G824  happen G1096  to him, they changed G3328  their minds G3328  and  R1 began to say G3004  that he was a god G2316 

[Bible_Student]

TThe point is that the same words are used at b and , yet b is mistranslated into "was God." To be in harmony with each other, Acts and b should both say "a god." The Greek words are the same.

Should and both say "worship" in order to be in harmony with each other? The Greek words are the same.

Semantics and grammar represent distinct aspects of language, each with its own set of rules.

I certainly agree with you, but how does that affect onewithhim's argument?

I didn't reply to onewithhim, but rather to you, as it’s your reasoning that is flawed.

[Difflugia]

I certainly agree with you, but how does that affect onewithhim's argument?

I didn't reply to onewithhim, but rather to you, as it’s your reasoning that is flawed.

Then you'll have to explain it to me. Your statement just seems like a non sequitur.

[Bible_Student]

I certainly agree with you, but how does that affect onewithhim's argument?

I didn't reply to onewithhim, but rather to you, as it’s your reasoning that is flawed.

Then you'll have to explain it to me. Your statement just seems like a non sequitur.

If you're unable to keep track of your own posts, there's little I can do to assist you.

[Difflugia]

If you're unable to keep track of your own posts, there's little I can do to assist you.

If you were really trying to assist anyone, I don't think you'd make us guess at what you mean. You do you, though.

[onewithhim]

[Replying to Bible_Student in post #25]

Examine Acts 28:6. It has the exact Greek abbrev. as found in John 1:1b for God. But this is translated as "a god." And in Sinaiticus it is abbreviated (along with over bar) exactly as it is in John 1:1b.

KJV
Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god.

The context talked about apostle Paul, is there any credence that Paul is divine throughout the Bible?
That has nothing to do with the "Word" the subject matter of John 1:1.

Acts 28:3-6
3 But when Paul had gathered a bundle of sticks and laid them on the fire, a viper came out because of the heat and fastened itself on his hand. 4 When the natives saw the creature hanging from his hand, they began saying to one another, " Undoubtedly this man is a murderer, and though he has been saved from the sea, justice has not allowed him to live." 5 However he shook the creature off into the fire and suffered no harm. 6 But they were expecting that he was about to swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But after they had waited a long time and had seen nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and began to say that he was a god.
NASU

The point is that the same words are used at John 1:1b and Acts 28:3-6, yet John 1:1b is mistranslated into "was God." To be in harmony with each other, Acts and John 1:1b should both say "a god." The Greek words are the same.

I believe the mistranslation happen when we insert "a" in John 1:1. The NASB has been updated to the NASB 2020, a word for word translation which further improves accuracy where possible, modernizes language, and improves readability while maintaining faithful accuracy to the original texts. And besides comparing those text of different context and not related is unfitting.

[/quote
You have been apprised of the reason the words are "inserted" into a verse. The King James and others insert words thousands of times, and this is necessary to set forth the meaning of a particular verse. We don't say "Snoopy is dog." We say "Snoopy is A dog," don't we? In the Greek, the meaning is taken for granted, as people would understand the word with no article as "A" god. It is not a "mistranslation" to insert the "a" into the verse. It is following the rules of translating Greek into English. There cannot be a literal word-for-word rendering.

[Capbook]

[Replying to Bible_Student in post #25]

Examine Acts 28:6. It has the exact Greek abbrev. as found in John 1:1b for God. But this is translated as "a god." And in Sinaiticus it is abbreviated (along with over bar) exactly as it is in John 1:1b.

KJV
Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god.

The context talked about apostle Paul, is there any credence that Paul is divine throughout the Bible?
That has nothing to do with the "Word" the subject matter of John 1:1.

Acts 28:3-6
3 But when Paul had gathered a bundle of sticks and laid them on the fire, a viper came out because of the heat and fastened itself on his hand. 4 When the natives saw the creature hanging from his hand, they began saying to one another, " Undoubtedly this man is a murderer, and though he has been saved from the sea, justice has not allowed him to live." 5 However he shook the creature off into the fire and suffered no harm. 6 But they were expecting that he was about to swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But after they had waited a long time and had seen nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and began to say that he was a god.
NASU

The point is that the same words are used at John 1:1b and Acts 28:3-6, yet John 1:1b is mistranslated into "was God." To be in harmony with each other, Acts and John 1:1b should both say "a god." The Greek words are the same.

I believe the mistranslation happen when we insert "a" in John 1:1. The NASB has been updated to the NASB 2020, a word for word translation which further improves accuracy where possible, modernizes language, and improves readability while maintaining faithful accuracy to the original texts. And besides comparing those text of different context and not related is unfitting.

[/quote
You have been apprised of the reason the words are "inserted" into a verse. The King James and others insert words thousands of times, and this is necessary to set forth the meaning of a particular verse. We don't say "Snoopy is dog." We say "Snoopy is A dog," don't we? In the Greek, the meaning is taken for granted, as people would understand the word with no article as "A" god. It is not a "mistranslation" to insert the "a" into the verse. It is following the rules of translating Greek into English. There cannot be a literal word-for-word rendering.

The Westcott and Hort NT titled, "The New Testament in the Original Greek", following it's original textual construction of the verse, it says, "and God was the Word", how would you insert the "a"?

Jhn 1:1 εν G1722 PREP  αρχη G746 N-DSF  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM  και G2532 CONJ  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  προς G4314 PREP  τον G3588 T-ASM  θεον G2316 N-ASM  και G2532 CONJ  θεος G2316 N-NSM  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM 

[onewithhim]

The context talked about apostle Paul, is there any credence that Paul is divine throughout the Bible?
That has nothing to do with the "Word" the subject matter of John 1:1.

Acts 28:3-6
3 But when Paul had gathered a bundle of sticks and laid them on the fire, a viper came out because of the heat and fastened itself on his hand. 4 When the natives saw the creature hanging from his hand, they began saying to one another, " Undoubtedly this man is a murderer, and though he has been saved from the sea, justice has not allowed him to live." 5 However he shook the creature off into the fire and suffered no harm. 6 But they were expecting that he was about to swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But after they had waited a long time and had seen nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and began to say that he was a god.
NASU

The point is that the same words are used at John 1:1b and Acts 28:3-6, yet John 1:1b is mistranslated into "was God." To be in harmony with each other, Acts and John 1:1b should both say "a god." The Greek words are the same.

I believe the mistranslation happen when we insert "a" in John 1:1. The NASB has been updated to the NASB 2020, a word for word translation which further improves accuracy where possible, modernizes language, and improves readability while maintaining faithful accuracy to the original texts. And besides comparing those text of different context and not related is unfitting.

[/quote
You have been apprised of the reason the words are "inserted" into a verse. The King James and others insert words thousands of times, and this is necessary to set forth the meaning of a particular verse. We don't say "Snoopy is dog." We say "Snoopy is A dog," don't we? In the Greek, the meaning is taken for granted, as people would understand the word with no article as "A" god. It is not a "mistranslation" to insert the "a" into the verse. It is following the rules of translating Greek into English. There cannot be a literal word-for-word rendering.

The Westcott and Hort NT titled, "The New Testament in the Original Greek", following it's original textual construction of the verse, it says, "and God was the Word", how would you insert the "a"?

Jhn 1:1 εν G1722 PREP  αρχη G746 N-DSF  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM  και G2532 CONJ  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  προς G4314 PREP  τον G3588 T-ASM  θεον G2316 N-ASM  και G2532 CONJ  θεος G2316 N-NSM  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM 

The Emphatic Diaglott, Containing the Greek Text of What is Commonly Styled the New Testament renders John 1:1b as "the word was a god."