John 1:1, the word was "a god."

[onewithhim]

Does anyone here have the list of Bible versions that say of John 1:1c "the word was a god"? I know there are several.

[Capbook]

Thank you, tygger2 for your research.

I guess you haven't noticed Difflugia and Historia credible evidence presented in this thread.
Three codex Vaticanus, Alexandrinus and Sinaiticus, the Septuagints proved that John 1:1 rendered "Logos was God" not "a god."

[historia]

I was browsing images of Codex Sinaiticus and noticed something: the scribe used nomina sacra notation for both θεόν and θεὸς in John 1:1. I then checked Alexandrinus and that scribe did the same thing.

The same is true in Codex Vaticanus (see pg. 1349)

It's also true in P75.

Whatever else may be true, that at least means that by the fifth century, Christians thought that the Logos was God and not just a god.

P75 is generally dated to 175-255 AD, so a much earlier manuscript than the codicies mentioned already. It's also very similar to Codex Vaticanus, and yet careful analysis has shown that it was not the exemplar for Vaticanus. Both P75 and Vaticanus were copied from an even earlier manuscript, probably from the mid-2nd Century.

If that manuscript also used nomina sacra here in John 1:1 -- and, given all of the evidence above, that seems entirely plausible -- Christian scribes had already reached the conclusion you've set out here by the 2nd Century.

[tygger2]

[Replying to Capbook in post #21]

I see that the overmark is used when letters are left off, often at the end of words. But as for nomina sacra I found without much trouble that Israel is often abbreviated with first and last letters and the overmark above them. John 1:31, 1:49 (or :50), 3:10. If these make all of Israel God himself ---- so be it.

[tygger2]

[Replying to Historia in post #22]

I was unable to find p75 online. But I have a book of the papyri (although apparently not as trustworthy as I initially assumed). p75 in it has the nomina sacra (so-called) for the abbreviations of "man" - John 1:4 and 5:7.

[Bible_Student]

The use of a noun as an abbreviation in biblical manuscripts, often referred to as nomina sacra, does not necessarily indicate that the noun pertains to God.

There are a wide variety of nouns used in abbreviated form in them, including terms like man, David, Israel, and several others that are not associated with God.

[Capbook]

[Replying to Bible_Student in post #25]

It seems that the nomina sacra for God appears similar to what was presented compare to man, David, Israel and etc.
See list of Greek nomina sacra below;

English meaning Greek word Nominative (Subject) Genitive (Possessive)
God Θεός, Theos ΘΣ ΘΥ
Lord Κύριος, Kyrios ΚΣ, ΚΣ ΚΥ, ΚΥ
Jesus Ἰησοῦς, Iēsous ΙΣ, ΙΗΣ ΙΥ, ΙΗΥ
Christ/Messiah Χριστός, Christos. ΧΣ, ΧΡΣ. ΧΥ
Son Υἱός, Huios ΥΣ ΥΥ
Spirit Πνεῦμα, Pneuma ΠΝΑ ΠΣ, ΠΝΣ, ΠΝΟΣ
David Δαυίδ, Dauid ΔΑΔ
Cross Σταυρός, Stauros ΣΤΣ ΣΤΥ
Mother Μήτηρ, Mētēr ΜΗΡ, ΜΡ ΜΡΣ
Father Πατήρ, Patēr ΠΗΡ, ΠΡ ΠΡΣ
Israel Ἰσραήλ, Israēl ΙΗΛ
Savior Σωτήρ, Sōtēr ΣΗΡ ΣΡΣ
Human Ἄνθρωπος, Anthrōpos ΑΝΟΣ ΑΝΟΥ
Jerusalem Ἱερουσαλήμ, Ierousalēm ΙΛΗΜ
Heaven/Heavens Οὐρανός, Ouranos ΟΥΝΟΣ ΟΥΝΟΥ
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nomina_sacra

[tygger2]

[Replying to Bible_Student in post #25]

Examine Acts 28:6. It has the exact Greek abbrev. as found in John 1:1b for God. But this is translated as "a god." And in Sinaiticus it is abbreviated (along with over bar) exactly as it is in John 1:1b.

KJV
Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god.

[Capbook]

[Replying to Bible_Student in post #25]

Examine Acts 28:6. It has the exact Greek abbrev. as found in John 1:1b for God. But this is translated as "a god." And in Sinaiticus it is abbreviated (along with over bar) exactly as it is in John 1:1b.

KJV
Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god.

The context talked about apostle Paul, is there any credence that Paul is divine throughout the Bible?
That has nothing to do with the "Word" the subject matter of John 1:1.

Acts 28:3-6
3 But when Paul had gathered a bundle of sticks and laid them on the fire, a viper came out because of the heat and fastened itself on his hand. 4 When the natives saw the creature hanging from his hand, they began saying to one another, " Undoubtedly this man is a murderer, and though he has been saved from the sea, justice has not allowed him to live." 5 However he shook the creature off into the fire and suffered no harm. 6 But they were expecting that he was about to swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But after they had waited a long time and had seen nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and began to say that he was a god.
NASU

[onewithhim]

[Replying to Bible_Student in post #25]

Examine Acts 28:6. It has the exact Greek abbrev. as found in John 1:1b for God. But this is translated as "a god." And in Sinaiticus it is abbreviated (along with over bar) exactly as it is in John 1:1b.

KJV
Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god.

The context talked about apostle Paul, is there any credence that Paul is divine throughout the Bible?
That has nothing to do with the "Word" the subject matter of John 1:1.

Acts 28:3-6
3 But when Paul had gathered a bundle of sticks and laid them on the fire, a viper came out because of the heat and fastened itself on his hand. 4 When the natives saw the creature hanging from his hand, they began saying to one another, " Undoubtedly this man is a murderer, and though he has been saved from the sea, justice has not allowed him to live." 5 However he shook the creature off into the fire and suffered no harm. 6 But they were expecting that he was about to swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But after they had waited a long time and had seen nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and began to say that he was a god.
NASU

The point is that the same words are used at John 1:1b and Acts 28:3-6, yet John 1:1b is mistranslated into "was God." To be in harmony with each other, Acts and John 1:1b should both say "a god." The Greek words are the same.

[Difflugia]

The point is that the same words are used at John 1:1b and Acts 28:3-6, yet John 1:1b is mistranslated into "was God." To be in harmony with each other, Acts and John 1:1b should both say "a god." The Greek words are the same.

Should Luke 4:8 and 24:52 both say "worship" in order to be in harmony with each other? The Greek words are the same.