Why would Luke word it this way?

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Elijah John
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Why would Luke word it this way?

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Post by Elijah John »

Acts 2:22-24 New International Version (NIV)
22 “Fellow Israelites, listen to this: Jesus of Nazareth was a man accredited by God to you by miracles, wonders and signs, which God did among you through him, as you yourselves know. 23 This man was handed over to you by God’s deliberate plan and foreknowledge; and you, with the help of wicked men,[a] put him to death by nailing him to the cross. 24 But God raised him from the dead, freeing him from the agony of death, because it was impossible for death to keep its hold on him.
Note, in this passage Luke never makes the Trinitarian distinction of referring to God as "Father" and Jesus as "God the Son". Instead, Luke has Peter referring to God only as "God" and Jesus as a "man", making a clear distinction between the two.

For debate, if Jesus was God, or if Luke and Peter believed that Jesus was God, why would either of them word it this way in this passage from Acts, making a clear distinction between God and the man Jesus?
My theological positions:

-God created us in His image, not the other way around.
-The Bible is redeemed by it's good parts.
-Pure monotheism, simple repentance.
-YHVH is LORD
-The real Jesus is not God, the real YHVH is not a monster.
-Eternal life is a gift from the Living God.
-Keep the Commandments, keep your salvation.
-I have accepted YHVH as my Heavenly Father, LORD and Savior.

I am inspired by Jesus to worship none but YHVH, and to serve only Him.

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Post #21

Post by Imprecise Interrupt »

@Checkpoint

Thanks for the welcome.

In fact I was addressing the OP. Guess I should have quoted it to make that clear.

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Re: Why would Luke word it this way?

Post #22

Post by JehovahsWitness »

JOHN 2:19

Jesus replied to them: “Tear down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.�
QUESTION Does John 2:19 say Jesus would resurrect himself?

♦ANSWER No , Jesus didn't say he would bring himself back from the dead, he said he would raise (or stand up) his body . If a child stands up from a prostate position it doesnt mean he or she gave birth to himself, only that once given a living body, he can subsequently control it.

The scriptures are quite clear as to who prepared Christ's resurrected body for him...
ACTS 2:24

God raised him from the dead, freeing him from the agony of death, because it was impossible for death to keep its hold on him. (Compare Acts 10:40; Hebrews 13:20)


JEHOVAH'S WITNESS




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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" -
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Post #23

Post by Imprecise Interrupt »

JehovahsWitness wrote:
JOHN 2:19

Jesus replied to them: “Tear down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.�
QUESTION Does John 2:19 say Jesus would resurrect himself?

♦ANSWER No , Jesus didn't say he would bring himself back from the dead, he said he would raise (or stand up) his body . If a child stands up from a prostate position it doesnt mean he or she gave birth to himself, only that once given a living body, he can subsequently control it.
Actually John 2:19 does say that Jesus will resurrect himself.

Ε� ΤΡΙΣΙ� ΗΜΕΡΑΙΣ ΕΓΕΡΩ ΑΥΤΟ�
In three days I-shall-be-arousing it

ΕΓΕΡΩ is indicative, future, active, first person singular

The verb is Strong’s G1453, which means to arouse from sleep or death.

Acts 2:24 uses a different verb and a different subject of the verb.

Ο ΘΕΟΣ Α�ΕΣΤΗΣΕ�
The God raises

Α�ΕΣΤΗΣΕ� is indicative, aorist, active, third person singular

The verb is Strong’s G450, which means to stand up.

In Acts 2:24, God raises Jesus. In John 2:19 Jesus wakes himself up from death.

John has Jesus very much in charge of everything. A prime example is John 18 where Jesus has to almost insist on being arrested. This passage also has Jesus mention willingly drinking the cup he was given. In the Synoptic Gospels, Jesus asks if the cup can be taken away. Nothing like that in John.

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Post #24

Post by JehovahsWitness »

Imprecise Interrupt wrote:
Actually John 2:19 does say that Jesus will resurrect himself.

Ε� ΤΡΙΣΙ� ΗΜΕΡΑΙΣ ΕΓΕΡΩ ΑΥΤΟ�
In three days I-shall-be-arousing it
The word Jesus used (egeiro) literally means " to rise" and can refer to rising from the dead, from sleep or rising from a chair*. So Jesus promised to get himself figuratively "up" again should he be put "down" (in death). However, as has been pointed out the question is ... since he was speaking figurately about his body ...
Did Jesus say anything about who would prepare /create the body he would rise up in in John 2:19?

Did Jesus say anything about who would give LIFE to the body he would rise up in ?
Indeed did Jesus say the word "create" "prepare" "life" (zoe) or even "from death" in John 2:19? If not there is simply not enough information in the passage itself to identify WHO gave life to the body Jesus intended to rise himself up (stand up) in.
To illustrate: A jealous enemy of a bride threatens to burn her beautiful bridal gown. She responds "Burn this gown and I will stand up at the alter in a new one". She has only stated that she will bring herself to church in another gown, she hasn't said who will sew it. She might sew it herself but she is just as likely ask her father to replace it.
Jesus promised to stand himself back up (egeiro), he didn't say who would make that act possible.



ACTS 10:40

God raised him from the dead on the third day and caused him to be seen.- NIV
* regarding the Greek words whether "egeiro" the word used in John or the more usual "anistemi", both carry the above flexibilty subject to context which is why when clarification is needed the writers usually add " from death" or to life" ect...notably Jesus did not do this in John 2:19.
https://studybible.info/vines/Raise%20(up)

JW
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681


"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" -
Romans 14:8

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Post #25

Post by Imprecise Interrupt »

JehovahsWitness wrote:
Imprecise Interrupt wrote:
Actually John 2:19 does say that Jesus will resurrect himself.

Ε� ΤΡΙΣΙ� ΗΜΕΡΑΙΣ ΕΓΕΡΩ ΑΥΤΟ�
In three days I-shall-be-arousing it
The word Jesus used (egeiro) literally means " to rise" and can refer to rising from the dead, from sleep or rising from a chair*. So Jesus promised to get himself figuratively "up" again should he be put "down" (in death). However, as has been pointed out the question is ... since he was speaking figurately about his body ...
Did Jesus say anything about who would prepare /create the body he would rise up in in John 2:19?

Did Jesus say anything about who would give LIFE to the body he would rise up in ?
Indeed did Jesus say the word "create" "prepare" "life" (zoe) or even "from death" in John 2:19? If not there is simply not enough information in the passage itself to identify WHO gave life to the body Jesus intended to rise himself up (stand up) in.
To illustrate: A jealous enemy of a bride threatens to burn her beautiful bridal gown. She responds "Burn this gown and I will stand up at the alter in a new one". She has only stated that she will bring herself to church in another gown, she hasn't said who will sew it. She might sew it herself but she is just as likely ask her father to replace it.
Jesus promised to stand himself back up (egeiro), he didn't say who would make that act possible.



ACTS 10:40

God raised him from the dead on the third day and caused him to be seen.- NIV
* regarding the Greek words whether "egeiro" the word used in John or the more usual "anistemi", both carry the above flexibilty subject to context which is why when clarification is needed the writers usually add " from death" or to life" ect...notably Jesus did not do this in John 2:19.
https://studybible.info/vines/Raise%20(up)

JW
I fail to see how your link affects the interpretation of John 2:19. The statement you made about ‘clarification’ is not found in that link. As the link states at the outset, the verb may be Active or Passive.

The Greek clearly says that Jesus will arouse his body (temple = body as per John 2:21 “But he was speaking about the temple of his body.�) It is, as I have pointed out, indicative, future, active, first person singular.

Indicative mood – presented as a real state of affairs
Future tense – not yet the case
Active voice – the subject of the verb is performing the verb
First person singular – ‘I’, i.e., Jesus

It is Jesus performing the action of rousing himself from the dead.

Where does it say anything about anyone preparing the body of Jesus for resurrection? Chapter and verse, please. If you want to use scripture to support an interpretation, good. But using a previously established belief to apply an interpretation to scripture does not work.

The point is that Acts 2 and all the other examples of God raising a passive Jesus do not agree with John 2:19 where Jesus is the active agent of his own resurrection. This is not really surprising. John strongly stresses the divinity of Jesus as well as Jesus being in control, one example of which I have provided.

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Post #26

Post by JehovahsWitness »

NOTE: Nobody is disputing that Jesus "raised" his body "up" (stood back up to life) .... only who gave him the life and the body so that he could perform this action.
Imprecise Interrupt wrote: Where does it say anything about anyone preparing the body of Jesus for resurrection?
JOHN 2:20-21

The Jews then said: “This temple was built in 46 years, and will you raise it up in three days?� But he was talking about the temple of his body

Compare ...
HEBREWS 10:5

Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said: “Sacrifice and offering you did not desire, but a body you prepared for me - NIV

INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681


"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" -
Romans 14:8

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Post #27

Post by Imprecise Interrupt »

JehovahsWitness wrote: NOTE: Nobody is disputing that Jesus "raised" his body "up" (stood back up to life) .... only who gave him the life and the body so that he could perform this action.
As I previously showed, the word in Acts 2:24 for ‘raised’ is not the same word as in John 2:19 which means arousing, as from sleep or death. In John 2:19, Jesus says that he is going to arouse himself from death. The syntax does not get any plainer than that.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
Imprecise Interrupt wrote: Where does it say anything about anyone preparing the body of Jesus for resurrection?
JOHN 2:20-21

The Jews then said: “This temple was built in 46 years, and will you raise it up in three days?� But he was talking about the temple of his body
Compare ...
HEBREWS 10:5

Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said: “Sacrifice and offering you did not desire, but a body you prepared for me - NIV

Here is the full verse of Hebrews 10:5

5 Consequently, when Christ came into the world, he said,
“Sacrifices and offerings you have not desired,
but a body have you prepared for me;

This is the body that Jesus was born with and that he died with. There is no mention of the body being prepared specifically for resurrection before Jesus aroused himself from death, as John 2:19 says he is going to do. Hebrews has no bearing on whether Jesus raised himself (active Jesus) or God raised him (passive Jesus). And once again, in John 2:19 Jesus is speaking in first person singular in the active voice.

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Post #28

Post by JehovahsWitness »

Imprecise Interrupt wrote: ... in John 2:19 which means arousing, as from sleep or death.

The word has a much wider range than you seem to be suggesting; may I suggest a good concordance?
https://studybible.info/strongs/G1453
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681


"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" -
Romans 14:8

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Post #29

Post by Imprecise Interrupt »

JehovahsWitness wrote:
Imprecise Interrupt wrote: ... in John 2:19 which means arousing, as from sleep or death.

The word has a much wider range than you seem to be suggesting; may I suggest a good concordance?
https://studybible.info/strongs/G1453
The link you provided gives these definitions:

LSJ: to awaken, wake up, rouse

Dodson:
I wake, arouse, raise up
(a) I wake, arouse, (b) I raise up.

Strong's:
to waken (transitively or intransitively), i.e. rouse (literally, from sleep, from sitting or lying, from disease, from death; or figuratively, from obscurity, inactivity, ruins, nonexistence)

I do not see ‘stand up’ in there anywhere. But I see lots and lots of ‘waken’ and ‘rouse’. And I still see that the verb Jesus uses is active voice, first person singular.

John often conflates Jesus and God (the Father) yet does not exactly identify them. It is a confusing and shifting mixture. “I and the Father are one.� (Jn 10:29) “The Father is greater than I.� (Jn 14:28) The key is in John’s use of the language and concepts of Philo of Alexandria where this all makes sense. But that is way beyond the scope of this Topic, even though it is related to the development of the Trinity idea, mentioned in the OP.

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Post #30

Post by Imprecise Interrupt »

JehovahsWitness wrote:
Imprecise Interrupt wrote: ... in John 2:19 which means arousing, as from sleep or death.

The word has a much wider range than you seem to be suggesting; may I suggest a good concordance?
https://studybible.info/strongs/G1453
The link you provided gives these definitions:

LSJ: to awaken, wake up, rouse

Dodson:
I wake, arouse, raise up
(a) I wake, arouse, (b) I raise up.

Strong's:
to waken (transitively or intransitively), i.e. rouse (literally, from sleep, from sitting or lying, from disease, from death; or figuratively, from obscurity, inactivity, ruins, nonexistence)

I do not see ‘stand up’ in there anywhere. But I see lots and lots of ‘waken’ and ‘rouse’. And I still see that the verb Jesus uses is active voice, first person singular.

John often conflates Jesus and God (the Father) yet does not exactly identify them. It is a confusing and shifting mixture. “I and the Father are one.� (Jn 10:29) “The Father is greater than I.� (Jn 14:28) The key is in John’s use of the language and concepts of Philo of Alexandria where this all makes sense. But that is way beyond the scope of this Topic, even though it is related to the development of the Trinity idea, mentioned in the OP.

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