It is written in John 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”
And Jesus said in John 14:6-7
King James Version
6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.
7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.”
So if no man has seen God at any time, how do we reconcile what seems to be a contradiction? When you understand the identity of the Son of God being the very Word of God, then you will understand there is no contradiction.
It is the Word OF God that was made flesh in the man Jesus. And it is BY God’s Word and words that we get to know and see what God the Father is really like, His likes and dislikes. It is by God’s Word and words we get to see and know the will of God the Father.
In this way, by looking at the words and actions of Jesus Christ we get to see and know what The invisible God is really like.
We don’t see the outward image of God in Christ, but rather we see the inward image of God in Jesus Christ, as God was in Christ.
Colossians 1:15
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
When you understand this mystery then there is a harmony to the text without contradiction.
Peace and God bless
No man has seen God at any time
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #81The Father.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 amYou did not answer my question colored blue,onewithhim wrote: ↑Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]
No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #82I believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;onewithhim wrote: ↑Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 amThe Father.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 amYou did not answer my question colored blue,onewithhim wrote: ↑Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]
No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #83I have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.Capbook wrote: ↑Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 amI believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;onewithhim wrote: ↑Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 amThe Father.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 amYou did not answer my question colored blue,onewithhim wrote: ↑Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]
No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #84Yes, I did not argue that it's the Father referred to "him and his". But I'd like to point out base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?onewithhim wrote: ↑Sat Sep 14, 2024 7:05 pmI have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.Capbook wrote: ↑Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 amI believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;onewithhim wrote: ↑Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 amThe Father.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 amYou did not answer my question colored blue,onewithhim wrote: ↑Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]
No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #85The Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail. The two chapters are out of order, but we understand them to be perfectly sensible. Jesus is not the true God. It is the Person who is referred to as "him" and "his."Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:02 amYes, I did not argue that it's the Father referred to "him and his". But I'd like to point out base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?onewithhim wrote: ↑Sat Sep 14, 2024 7:05 pmI have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.Capbook wrote: ↑Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 amI believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;onewithhim wrote: ↑Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 amThe Father.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 amYou did not answer my question colored blue,onewithhim wrote: ↑Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]
No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #86We are not talking about Chapters, I confine my arguments on one verse only.onewithhim wrote: ↑Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:36 pmThe Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail. The two chapters are out of order, but we understand them to be perfectly sensible. Jesus is not the true God. It is the Person who is referred to as "him" and "his."Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:02 amYes, I did not argue that it's the Father referred to "him and his". But I'd like to point out base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?onewithhim wrote: ↑Sat Sep 14, 2024 7:05 pmI have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.Capbook wrote: ↑Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 amI believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;onewithhim wrote: ↑Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 amThe Father.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 amYou did not answer my question colored blue,onewithhim wrote: ↑Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]
No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
Base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #87Nope. Genesis 1:1 - 2:3 is the creation story of Elohim. Genesis 2:4 - 22 is the creation story of Yahweh Elohim. The order is irrelevant. The editors consider both stories important, so they included both even though they are contradictory tales.onewithhim wrote: ↑Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:36 pm The Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail.
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I must assume that knowing is better than not knowing, venturing than not venturing; and that magic and illusion, however rich, however alluring, ultimately weaken the human spirit.
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I must assume that knowing is better than not knowing, venturing than not venturing; and that magic and illusion, however rich, however alluring, ultimately weaken the human spirit.
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #88It would be the person referred to with "him" or "his." (And you can't confine your arguments to one verse only. We must look at the Scriptures as a whole.) Also, the grammatical construction of Greek is different than that of English.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 21, 2024 8:12 pmWe are not talking about Chapters, I confine my arguments on one verse only.onewithhim wrote: ↑Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:36 pmThe Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail. The two chapters are out of order, but we understand them to be perfectly sensible. Jesus is not the true God. It is the Person who is referred to as "him" and "his."Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:02 amYes, I did not argue that it's the Father referred to "him and his". But I'd like to point out base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?onewithhim wrote: ↑Sat Sep 14, 2024 7:05 pmI have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.Capbook wrote: ↑Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 amI believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;onewithhim wrote: ↑Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 amThe Father.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 amYou did not answer my question colored blue,onewithhim wrote: ↑Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]
No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
Base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #89Nothing you said there conflicts with what I said.Tcg wrote: ↑Tue Sep 24, 2024 9:00 amNope. Genesis 1:1 - 2:3 is the creation story of Elohim. Genesis 2:4 - 22 is the creation story of Yahweh Elohim. The order is irrelevant. The editors consider both stories important, so they included both even though they are contradictory tales.onewithhim wrote: ↑Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:36 pm The Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail.
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #90No, English sentence construction is following the Greek construction. See the nearest antecedent of the phrase "this is the true God" in the Greek still is Jesus Christ.onewithhim wrote: ↑Fri Sep 27, 2024 1:03 pmIt would be the person referred to with "him" or "his." (And you can't confine your arguments to one verse only. We must look at the Scriptures as a whole.) Also, the grammatical construction of Greek is different than that of English.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 21, 2024 8:12 pmWe are not talking about Chapters, I confine my arguments on one verse only.onewithhim wrote: ↑Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:36 pmThe Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail. The two chapters are out of order, but we understand them to be perfectly sensible. Jesus is not the true God. It is the Person who is referred to as "him" and "his."Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:02 amYes, I did not argue that it's the Father referred to "him and his". But I'd like to point out base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?onewithhim wrote: ↑Sat Sep 14, 2024 7:05 pmI have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.Capbook wrote: ↑Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 amI believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;onewithhim wrote: ↑Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 amThe Father.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 amYou did not answer my question colored blue,onewithhim wrote: ↑Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]
No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
Base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?
And who also do you think gives eternal life? (John 11:25,26)
1Jn 5:20 And G1161 we know G1492 that G3754 the G3588 Son G5207 of God G2316 is come, G2240 and G2532 hath given G1325 us G2254 an understanding, G1271 that G2443 we may know G1097 him that is true, G228 and G2532 we are G2070 in G1722 him that is true, G228 even in G1722 his G848 Son G5207 Jesus G2424 Christ. G5547 This G3778 is G2076 the G3588 true G228 God, G2316 and G2532 eternal G166 life. G2222
1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν G1492 V-RAI-1P δε G1161 CONJ οτι G3754 CONJ ο G3588 T-NSM υιος G5207 N-NSM του G3588 T-GSM θεου G2316 N-GSM ηκει G2240 V-PAI-3S και G2532 CONJ δεδωκεν G1325 V-RAI-3S ημιν G1473 P-1DP διανοιαν G1271 N-ASF ινα G2443 CONJ γινωσκωμεν G1097 V-PAS-1P τον G3588 T-ASM αληθινον G228 A-ASM και G2532 CONJ εσμεν G1510 V-PAI-1P εν G1722 PREP τω G3588 T-DSM αληθινω G228 A-DSM εν G1722 PREP τω G3588 T-DSM υιω G5207 N-DSM αυτου G846 P-GSM ιησου G2424 N-DSM χριστω G5547 N-DSM ουτος G3778 D-NSM εστιν G1510 V-PAI-3S ο G3588 T-NSM αληθινος G228 A-NSM θεος G2316 N-NSM και G2532 CONJ η G3588 T-NSF ζωη G2222 N-NSF αιωνιος G166 A-NSF
1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.