No man has seen God at any time

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Stewardofthemystery
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No man has seen God at any time

Post #1

Post by Stewardofthemystery »

It is written in John 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”

And Jesus said in John 14:6-7
King James Version
6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.”

So if no man has seen God at any time, how do we reconcile what seems to be a contradiction? When you understand the identity of the Son of God being the very Word of God, then you will understand there is no contradiction.

It is the Word OF God that was made flesh in the man Jesus. And it is BY God’s Word and words that we get to know and see what God the Father is really like, His likes and dislikes. It is by God’s Word and words we get to see and know the will of God the Father.

In this way, by looking at the words and actions of Jesus Christ we get to see and know what The invisible God is really like.

We don’t see the outward image of God in Christ, but rather we see the inward image of God in Jesus Christ, as God was in Christ.

Colossians 1:15
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

When you understand this mystery then there is a harmony to the text without contradiction.

Peace and God bless

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #81

Post by onewithhim »

Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 am
onewithhim wrote: Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]

No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
You did not answer my question colored blue,

Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
The Father.

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #82

Post by Capbook »

onewithhim wrote: Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 am
Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 am
onewithhim wrote: Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]

No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
You did not answer my question colored blue,

Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
The Father.
I believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;

Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"

1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #83

Post by onewithhim »

Capbook wrote: Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 am
onewithhim wrote: Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 am
Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 am
onewithhim wrote: Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]

No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
You did not answer my question colored blue,

Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
The Father.
I believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;

Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"

1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
I have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #84

Post by Capbook »

onewithhim wrote: Sat Sep 14, 2024 7:05 pm
Capbook wrote: Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 am
onewithhim wrote: Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 am
Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 am
onewithhim wrote: Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]

No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
You did not answer my question colored blue,

Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
The Father.
I believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;

Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"

1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
I have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.
Yes, I did not argue that it's the Father referred to "him and his". But I'd like to point out base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #85

Post by onewithhim »

Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:02 am
onewithhim wrote: Sat Sep 14, 2024 7:05 pm
Capbook wrote: Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 am
onewithhim wrote: Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 am
Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 am
onewithhim wrote: Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]

No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
You did not answer my question colored blue,

Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
The Father.
I believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;

Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"

1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
I have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.
Yes, I did not argue that it's the Father referred to "him and his". But I'd like to point out base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?
The Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail. The two chapters are out of order, but we understand them to be perfectly sensible. Jesus is not the true God. It is the Person who is referred to as "him" and "his."

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #86

Post by Capbook »

onewithhim wrote: Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:36 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:02 am
onewithhim wrote: Sat Sep 14, 2024 7:05 pm
Capbook wrote: Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 am
onewithhim wrote: Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 am
Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 am
onewithhim wrote: Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]

No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
You did not answer my question colored blue,

Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
The Father.
I believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;

Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"

1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
I have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.
Yes, I did not argue that it's the Father referred to "him and his". But I'd like to point out base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?
The Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail. The two chapters are out of order, but we understand them to be perfectly sensible. Jesus is not the true God. It is the Person who is referred to as "him" and "his."
We are not talking about Chapters, I confine my arguments on one verse only.
Base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #87

Post by Tcg »

onewithhim wrote: Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:36 pm The Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail.
Nope. Genesis 1:1 - 2:3 is the creation story of Elohim. Genesis 2:4 - 22 is the creation story of Yahweh Elohim. The order is irrelevant. The editors consider both stories important, so they included both even though they are contradictory tales.


Tcg
To be clear: Atheism is not a disbelief in gods or a denial of gods; it is a lack of belief in gods.

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #88

Post by onewithhim »

Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 21, 2024 8:12 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:36 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:02 am
onewithhim wrote: Sat Sep 14, 2024 7:05 pm
Capbook wrote: Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 am
onewithhim wrote: Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 am
Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 am
onewithhim wrote: Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]

No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
You did not answer my question colored blue,

Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
The Father.
I believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;

Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"

1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
I have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.
Yes, I did not argue that it's the Father referred to "him and his". But I'd like to point out base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?
The Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail. The two chapters are out of order, but we understand them to be perfectly sensible. Jesus is not the true God. It is the Person who is referred to as "him" and "his."
We are not talking about Chapters, I confine my arguments on one verse only.
Base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?
It would be the person referred to with "him" or "his." (And you can't confine your arguments to one verse only. We must look at the Scriptures as a whole.) Also, the grammatical construction of Greek is different than that of English.

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #89

Post by onewithhim »

Tcg wrote: Tue Sep 24, 2024 9:00 am
onewithhim wrote: Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:36 pm The Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail.
Nope. Genesis 1:1 - 2:3 is the creation story of Elohim. Genesis 2:4 - 22 is the creation story of Yahweh Elohim. The order is irrelevant. The editors consider both stories important, so they included both even though they are contradictory tales.


Tcg
Nothing you said there conflicts with what I said.

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #90

Post by Capbook »

onewithhim wrote: Fri Sep 27, 2024 1:03 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 21, 2024 8:12 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:36 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 21, 2024 2:02 am
onewithhim wrote: Sat Sep 14, 2024 7:05 pm
Capbook wrote: Fri Sep 13, 2024 6:38 am
onewithhim wrote: Wed Sep 11, 2024 9:17 am
Capbook wrote: Sat Sep 07, 2024 3:35 am
onewithhim wrote: Thu Sep 05, 2024 12:32 pm [Replying to Capbook in post #77]

No, Jesus is saying to the Father that the Father is the true God. Jesus said "YOU are the one true God." Was Jesus talking to himself? I think it's clear that he was addressing the Father, Jehovah.
You did not answer my question colored blue,

Twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"
The Father.
I believe you missed to see the verse. Please find it below;

Now, twice Jesus testified about God as the true God. Grammatical exegesis, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God?"

1 John 5:20
20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
KJV
I have explained this before but you don't consider my posts. The true God is the "him" and the "his" in the verse. Who are those pronouns referring to? "HIS Son Jesus Christ." Whoever "his" refers to is the true God and eternal life.
Yes, I did not argue that it's the Father referred to "him and his". But I'd like to point out base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?
The Bible doesn't always go in order. For example, Genesis 1 shows a general overview of the creation, and Genesis 2 goes into detail. The two chapters are out of order, but we understand them to be perfectly sensible. Jesus is not the true God. It is the Person who is referred to as "him" and "his."
We are not talking about Chapters, I confine my arguments on one verse only.
Base on grammatical construction, who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase, "This is the true God" in the verse?
It would be the person referred to with "him" or "his." (And you can't confine your arguments to one verse only. We must look at the Scriptures as a whole.) Also, the grammatical construction of Greek is different than that of English.
No, English sentence construction is following the Greek construction. See the nearest antecedent of the phrase "this is the true God" in the Greek still is Jesus Christ.
And who also do you think gives eternal life? (John 11:25,26)

1Jn 5:20 And G1161  we know G1492  that G3754  the G3588  Son G5207  of God G2316  is come, G2240  and G2532  hath given G1325  us G2254  an understanding, G1271  that G2443  we may know G1097  him that is true, G228  and G2532  we are G2070  in G1722  him that is true, G228  even in G1722  his G848  Son G5207  Jesus G2424  Christ. G5547This G3778  is G2076  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  eternal G166  life. G2222 

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν G1492 V-RAI-1P  δε G1161 CONJ  οτι G3754 CONJ  ο G3588 T-NSM  υιος G5207 N-NSM  του G3588 T-GSM  θεου G2316 N-GSM  ηκει G2240 V-PAI-3S  και G2532 CONJ  δεδωκεν G1325 V-RAI-3S  ημιν G1473 P-1DP  διανοιαν G1271 N-ASF  ινα G2443 CONJ  γινωσκωμεν G1097 V-PAS-1P  τον G3588 T-ASM  αληθινον G228 A-ASM  και G2532 CONJ  εσμεν G1510 V-PAI-1P  εν G1722 PREP  τω G3588 T-DSM  αληθινω G228 A-DSM  εν G1722 PREP  τω G3588 T-DSM  υιω G5207 N-DSM  αυτου G846 P-GSM  ιησου G2424 N-DSM  χριστω G5547 N-DSM  ουτος G3778 D-NSM  εστιν G1510 V-PAI-3S  ο G3588 T-NSM  αληθινος G228 A-NSM  θεος G2316 N-NSM  και G2532 CONJ  η G3588 T-NSF  ζωη G2222 N-NSF  αιωνιος G166 A-NSF 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.

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