No man has seen God at any time

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Stewardofthemystery
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No man has seen God at any time

Post #1

Post by Stewardofthemystery »

It is written in John 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”

And Jesus said in John 14:6-7
King James Version
6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.”

So if no man has seen God at any time, how do we reconcile what seems to be a contradiction? When you understand the identity of the Son of God being the very Word of God, then you will understand there is no contradiction.

It is the Word OF God that was made flesh in the man Jesus. And it is BY God’s Word and words that we get to know and see what God the Father is really like, His likes and dislikes. It is by God’s Word and words we get to see and know the will of God the Father.

In this way, by looking at the words and actions of Jesus Christ we get to see and know what The invisible God is really like.

We don’t see the outward image of God in Christ, but rather we see the inward image of God in Jesus Christ, as God was in Christ.

Colossians 1:15
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

When you understand this mystery then there is a harmony to the text without contradiction.

Peace and God bless

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #111

Post by Capbook »

onewithhim wrote: Fri Dec 13, 2024 12:15 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 23, 2024 1:13 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 17, 2024 5:43 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 16, 2024 4:28 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 10, 2024 5:44 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 8:15 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 6:30 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 4:21 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 03, 2024 1:09 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 02, 2024 3:11 pm

As it is not wrong, then who is the nearest antecedent of the phrase "This is the true God" in that Greek sentence construction?
It is "his," that is, the Father who is God. "His" Son. The sentence could be: "Jesus Christ, the Son of his ." That means exactly the same as the other sentence structure. It is clear that "his" is the Father's pronoun, and he is the true God.
I colored blue the name "Jesus Christ," what is the next phrase after His name?



1Jn 5:20 And G1161  we know G1492  that G3754  the G3588  Son G5207  of God G2316  is come, G2240  and G2532  hath given G1325  us G2254  an understanding, G1271  that G2443  we may know G1097  him that is true, G228  and G2532  we are G2070  in G1722  him that is true, G228  even in G1722  his G848  Son G5207  Jesus G2424  Christ. G5547  This G3778  is G2076  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  eternal G166  life. G2222 
It is the same as "Jesus Christ, the Son of his." What is the next phrase after "his"?
Is the original Greek of the verse wrong?
Just read it plain and simple.
"Jesus Christ, even the Son of his" is the same as "even in his Son, Jesus Christ." What is the next phrase after "his"?
Yes, the next phrase after his is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life.
How Christians experience eternal life? Is to know God and Jesus Christ. (John 17:3) True or not?
Yes, I have said this many times. To know God AND Jesus Christ.
Yes, but you did not address my answer I colored blue above to you question I also colored blue above mine.
Who is referred to when saying "his"? That is the Father (God) who is mentioned there. He is the true God, not Jesus.
The last His in the verse is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life

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onewithhim
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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #112

Post by onewithhim »

Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 14, 2024 11:21 am
onewithhim wrote: Fri Dec 13, 2024 12:15 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 23, 2024 1:13 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 17, 2024 5:43 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 16, 2024 4:28 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 10, 2024 5:44 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 8:15 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 6:30 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 4:21 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 03, 2024 1:09 pm
It is "his," that is, the Father who is God. "His" Son. The sentence could be: "Jesus Christ, the Son of his ." That means exactly the same as the other sentence structure. It is clear that "his" is the Father's pronoun, and he is the true God.
I colored blue the name "Jesus Christ," what is the next phrase after His name?



1Jn 5:20 And G1161  we know G1492  that G3754  the G3588  Son G5207  of God G2316  is come, G2240  and G2532  hath given G1325  us G2254  an understanding, G1271  that G2443  we may know G1097  him that is true, G228  and G2532  we are G2070  in G1722  him that is true, G228  even in G1722  his G848  Son G5207  Jesus G2424  Christ. G5547  This G3778  is G2076  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  eternal G166  life. G2222 
It is the same as "Jesus Christ, the Son of his." What is the next phrase after "his"?
Is the original Greek of the verse wrong?
Just read it plain and simple.
"Jesus Christ, even the Son of his" is the same as "even in his Son, Jesus Christ." What is the next phrase after "his"?
Yes, the next phrase after his is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life.
How Christians experience eternal life? Is to know God and Jesus Christ. (John 17:3) True or not?
Yes, I have said this many times. To know God AND Jesus Christ.
Yes, but you did not address my answer I colored blue above to you question I also colored blue above mine.
Who is referred to when saying "his"? That is the Father (God) who is mentioned there. He is the true God, not Jesus.
The last His in the verse is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life
That's right. It refers to God, the Father.

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #113

Post by Capbook »

onewithhim wrote: Thu Dec 19, 2024 12:20 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 14, 2024 11:21 am
onewithhim wrote: Fri Dec 13, 2024 12:15 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 23, 2024 1:13 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 17, 2024 5:43 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 16, 2024 4:28 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 10, 2024 5:44 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 8:15 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 6:30 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 4:21 pm

I colored blue the name "Jesus Christ," what is the next phrase after His name?



1Jn 5:20 And G1161  we know G1492  that G3754  the G3588  Son G5207  of God G2316  is come, G2240  and G2532  hath given G1325  us G2254  an understanding, G1271  that G2443  we may know G1097  him that is true, G228  and G2532  we are G2070  in G1722  him that is true, G228  even in G1722  his G848  Son G5207  Jesus G2424  Christ. G5547  This G3778  is G2076  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  eternal G166  life. G2222 
It is the same as "Jesus Christ, the Son of his." What is the next phrase after "his"?
Is the original Greek of the verse wrong?
Just read it plain and simple.
"Jesus Christ, even the Son of his" is the same as "even in his Son, Jesus Christ." What is the next phrase after "his"?
Yes, the next phrase after his is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life.
How Christians experience eternal life? Is to know God and Jesus Christ. (John 17:3) True or not?
Yes, I have said this many times. To know God AND Jesus Christ.
Yes, but you did not address my answer I colored blue above to you question I also colored blue above mine.
Who is referred to when saying "his"? That is the Father (God) who is mentioned there. He is the true God, not Jesus.
The last His in the verse is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life
That's right. It refers to God, the Father.
The original Greek text is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this ONE is the true God and eternal life.
Please see below "one" in bold red color.
That sure did refer to Jesus as the true God.

1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #114

Post by onewithhim »

Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 21, 2024 1:46 pm
onewithhim wrote: Thu Dec 19, 2024 12:20 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 14, 2024 11:21 am
onewithhim wrote: Fri Dec 13, 2024 12:15 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 23, 2024 1:13 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 17, 2024 5:43 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 16, 2024 4:28 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 10, 2024 5:44 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 8:15 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 6:30 pm
It is the same as "Jesus Christ, the Son of his." What is the next phrase after "his"?
Is the original Greek of the verse wrong?
Just read it plain and simple.
"Jesus Christ, even the Son of his" is the same as "even in his Son, Jesus Christ." What is the next phrase after "his"?
Yes, the next phrase after his is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life.
How Christians experience eternal life? Is to know God and Jesus Christ. (John 17:3) True or not?
Yes, I have said this many times. To know God AND Jesus Christ.
Yes, but you did not address my answer I colored blue above to you question I also colored blue above mine.
Who is referred to when saying "his"? That is the Father (God) who is mentioned there. He is the true God, not Jesus.
The last His in the verse is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life
That's right. It refers to God, the Father.
The original Greek text is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this ONE is the true God and eternal life.
Please see below "one" in bold red color.
That sure did refer to Jesus as the true God.
No, it is "this One" who is the Father of Jesus. HIS Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God. The One referred to as "his." It's like replacing the pronoun with the name of the Father of the Son: Jehovah's Son Jesus Christ, this One is the true God. A person looking at this might get the impression that it speaks of Jesus as the "true God," but it can just as feasibly mean that it is the Father that is the true God. My view of this verse is just as compelling as your view. So which view do we side with? We look at all of the thousands of passages that refer to Jehovah the Father as the true God. Jesus himself called his Father that (John 17:3).

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #115

Post by Capbook »

onewithhim wrote: Mon Dec 23, 2024 2:12 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 21, 2024 1:46 pm
onewithhim wrote: Thu Dec 19, 2024 12:20 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 14, 2024 11:21 am
onewithhim wrote: Fri Dec 13, 2024 12:15 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 23, 2024 1:13 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 17, 2024 5:43 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 16, 2024 4:28 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 10, 2024 5:44 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 09, 2024 8:15 pm

Is the original Greek of the verse wrong?
Just read it plain and simple.
"Jesus Christ, even the Son of his" is the same as "even in his Son, Jesus Christ." What is the next phrase after "his"?
Yes, the next phrase after his is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life.
How Christians experience eternal life? Is to know God and Jesus Christ. (John 17:3) True or not?
Yes, I have said this many times. To know God AND Jesus Christ.
Yes, but you did not address my answer I colored blue above to you question I also colored blue above mine.
Who is referred to when saying "his"? That is the Father (God) who is mentioned there. He is the true God, not Jesus.
The last His in the verse is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life
That's right. It refers to God, the Father.
The original Greek text is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this ONE is the true God and eternal life.
Please see below "one" in bold red color.
That sure did refer to Jesus as the true God.
No, it is "this One" who is the Father of Jesus. HIS Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God. The One referred to as "his." It's like replacing the pronoun with the name of the Father of the Son: Jehovah's Son Jesus Christ, this One is the true God. A person looking at this might get the impression that it speaks of Jesus as the "true God," but it can just as feasibly mean that it is the Father that is the true God. My view of this verse is just as compelling as your view. So which view do we side with? We look at all of the thousands of passages that refer to Jehovah the Father as the true God. Jesus himself called his Father that (John 17:3).
God the Father had been referred as "the one" and Jesus Christ as "this one" the true God and life eternal.
I think you would also understand that "the" referred to someone that is far from the speaker. (Father as in heaven)
While "this" refer to what is near and also the nearest antecedent in the original Greek text, whom to this case is Jesus.


1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #116

Post by onewithhim »

Capbook wrote: Sun Jan 05, 2025 2:35 pm
onewithhim wrote: Mon Dec 23, 2024 2:12 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 21, 2024 1:46 pm
onewithhim wrote: Thu Dec 19, 2024 12:20 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 14, 2024 11:21 am
onewithhim wrote: Fri Dec 13, 2024 12:15 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 23, 2024 1:13 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 17, 2024 5:43 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 16, 2024 4:28 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 10, 2024 5:44 pm
"Jesus Christ, even the Son of his" is the same as "even in his Son, Jesus Christ." What is the next phrase after "his"?
Yes, the next phrase after his is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life.
How Christians experience eternal life? Is to know God and Jesus Christ. (John 17:3) True or not?
Yes, I have said this many times. To know God AND Jesus Christ.
Yes, but you did not address my answer I colored blue above to you question I also colored blue above mine.
Who is referred to when saying "his"? That is the Father (God) who is mentioned there. He is the true God, not Jesus.
The last His in the verse is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life
That's right. It refers to God, the Father.
The original Greek text is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this ONE is the true God and eternal life.
Please see below "one" in bold red color.
That sure did refer to Jesus as the true God.
No, it is "this One" who is the Father of Jesus. HIS Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God. The One referred to as "his." It's like replacing the pronoun with the name of the Father of the Son: Jehovah's Son Jesus Christ, this One is the true God. A person looking at this might get the impression that it speaks of Jesus as the "true God," but it can just as feasibly mean that it is the Father that is the true God. My view of this verse is just as compelling as your view. So which view do we side with? We look at all of the thousands of passages that refer to Jehovah the Father as the true God. Jesus himself called his Father that (John 17:3).
God the Father had been referred as "the one" and Jesus Christ as "this one" the true God and life eternal.
I think you would also understand that "the" referred to someone that is far from the speaker. (Father as in heaven)
While "this" refer to what is near and also the nearest antecedent in the original Greek text, whom to this case is Jesus.


1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.
You pick out a verse here and there---very few---that seem to you to refer to Jesus as God. We must look at all the other verses in the Scriptures that tell us differently, and there are hundreds. What did Jesus mean by saying to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"? (John 20:17)

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #117

Post by Capbook »

onewithhim wrote: Mon Jan 06, 2025 11:37 am
Capbook wrote: Sun Jan 05, 2025 2:35 pm
onewithhim wrote: Mon Dec 23, 2024 2:12 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 21, 2024 1:46 pm
onewithhim wrote: Thu Dec 19, 2024 12:20 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 14, 2024 11:21 am
onewithhim wrote: Fri Dec 13, 2024 12:15 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 23, 2024 1:13 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 17, 2024 5:43 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 16, 2024 4:28 pm

Yes, the next phrase after his is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life.
How Christians experience eternal life? Is to know God and Jesus Christ. (John 17:3) True or not?
Yes, I have said this many times. To know God AND Jesus Christ.
Yes, but you did not address my answer I colored blue above to you question I also colored blue above mine.
Who is referred to when saying "his"? That is the Father (God) who is mentioned there. He is the true God, not Jesus.
The last His in the verse is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life
That's right. It refers to God, the Father.
The original Greek text is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this ONE is the true God and eternal life.
Please see below "one" in bold red color.
That sure did refer to Jesus as the true God.
No, it is "this One" who is the Father of Jesus. HIS Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God. The One referred to as "his." It's like replacing the pronoun with the name of the Father of the Son: Jehovah's Son Jesus Christ, this One is the true God. A person looking at this might get the impression that it speaks of Jesus as the "true God," but it can just as feasibly mean that it is the Father that is the true God. My view of this verse is just as compelling as your view. So which view do we side with? We look at all of the thousands of passages that refer to Jehovah the Father as the true God. Jesus himself called his Father that (John 17:3).
God the Father had been referred as "the one" and Jesus Christ as "this one" the true God and life eternal.
I think you would also understand that "the" referred to someone that is far from the speaker. (Father as in heaven)
While "this" refer to what is near and also the nearest antecedent in the original Greek text, whom to this case is Jesus.


1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.
You pick out a verse here and there---very few---that seem to you to refer to Jesus as God. We must look at all the other verses in the Scriptures that tell us differently, and there are hundreds. What did Jesus mean by saying to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"? (John 20:17)
Do you ran out of reason without evidence denying Jesus as true God in 1 John 5:20?
That would be a big hurdle for Christians to experience eternal life by not knowing what truly Jesus is. (John 17:3)
Jesus humbled himself though He possessed the state of being God. Even would mean as His property.(Phil 2:6)
As Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek as "huparchonta" as possessions, property, etc.
If you rebut, please post evidence (original Greek text), not just explanations from bias translations.

ὑπάρχοντα huparchonta
Thayer Definition:
1) possessions, goods, wealth, property

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing, not  a seizure  esteemed it  to be  equal   with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,
[/quote]

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #118

Post by onewithhim »

Capbook wrote: Sat Jan 11, 2025 3:47 pm
onewithhim wrote: Mon Jan 06, 2025 11:37 am
Capbook wrote: Sun Jan 05, 2025 2:35 pm
onewithhim wrote: Mon Dec 23, 2024 2:12 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 21, 2024 1:46 pm
onewithhim wrote: Thu Dec 19, 2024 12:20 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 14, 2024 11:21 am
onewithhim wrote: Fri Dec 13, 2024 12:15 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 23, 2024 1:13 pm
onewithhim wrote: Sun Nov 17, 2024 5:43 pm
Yes, I have said this many times. To know God AND Jesus Christ.
Yes, but you did not address my answer I colored blue above to you question I also colored blue above mine.
Who is referred to when saying "his"? That is the Father (God) who is mentioned there. He is the true God, not Jesus.
The last His in the verse is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life
That's right. It refers to God, the Father.
The original Greek text is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this ONE is the true God and eternal life.
Please see below "one" in bold red color.
That sure did refer to Jesus as the true God.
No, it is "this One" who is the Father of Jesus. HIS Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God. The One referred to as "his." It's like replacing the pronoun with the name of the Father of the Son: Jehovah's Son Jesus Christ, this One is the true God. A person looking at this might get the impression that it speaks of Jesus as the "true God," but it can just as feasibly mean that it is the Father that is the true God. My view of this verse is just as compelling as your view. So which view do we side with? We look at all of the thousands of passages that refer to Jehovah the Father as the true God. Jesus himself called his Father that (John 17:3).
God the Father had been referred as "the one" and Jesus Christ as "this one" the true God and life eternal.
I think you would also understand that "the" referred to someone that is far from the speaker. (Father as in heaven)
While "this" refer to what is near and also the nearest antecedent in the original Greek text, whom to this case is Jesus.


1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.
You pick out a verse here and there---very few---that seem to you to refer to Jesus as God. We must look at all the other verses in the Scriptures that tell us differently, and there are hundreds. What did Jesus mean by saying to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"? (John 20:17)
Do you ran out of reason without evidence denying Jesus as true God in 1 John 5:20?
That would be a big hurdle for Christians to experience eternal life by not knowing what truly Jesus is. (John 17:3)
Jesus humbled himself though He possessed the state of being God. Even would mean as His property.(Phil 2:6)
As Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek as "huparchonta" as possessions, property, etc.
If you rebut, please post evidence (original Greek text), not just explanations from bias translations.
Once again you have not answered my direct question. What did Jesus mean when he said to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"?

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #119

Post by Capbook »

onewithhim wrote: Mon Jan 13, 2025 12:08 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Jan 11, 2025 3:47 pm
onewithhim wrote: Mon Jan 06, 2025 11:37 am
Capbook wrote: Sun Jan 05, 2025 2:35 pm
onewithhim wrote: Mon Dec 23, 2024 2:12 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 21, 2024 1:46 pm
onewithhim wrote: Thu Dec 19, 2024 12:20 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 14, 2024 11:21 am
onewithhim wrote: Fri Dec 13, 2024 12:15 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Nov 23, 2024 1:13 pm

Yes, but you did not address my answer I colored blue above to you question I also colored blue above mine.
Who is referred to when saying "his"? That is the Father (God) who is mentioned there. He is the true God, not Jesus.
The last His in the verse is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life
That's right. It refers to God, the Father.
The original Greek text is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this ONE is the true God and eternal life.
Please see below "one" in bold red color.
That sure did refer to Jesus as the true God.
No, it is "this One" who is the Father of Jesus. HIS Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God. The One referred to as "his." It's like replacing the pronoun with the name of the Father of the Son: Jehovah's Son Jesus Christ, this One is the true God. A person looking at this might get the impression that it speaks of Jesus as the "true God," but it can just as feasibly mean that it is the Father that is the true God. My view of this verse is just as compelling as your view. So which view do we side with? We look at all of the thousands of passages that refer to Jehovah the Father as the true God. Jesus himself called his Father that (John 17:3).
God the Father had been referred as "the one" and Jesus Christ as "this one" the true God and life eternal.
I think you would also understand that "the" referred to someone that is far from the speaker. (Father as in heaven)
While "this" refer to what is near and also the nearest antecedent in the original Greek text, whom to this case is Jesus.


1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.
You pick out a verse here and there---very few---that seem to you to refer to Jesus as God. We must look at all the other verses in the Scriptures that tell us differently, and there are hundreds. What did Jesus mean by saying to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"? (John 20:17)
Do you ran out of reason without evidence denying Jesus as true God in 1 John 5:20?
That would be a big hurdle for Christians to experience eternal life by not knowing what truly Jesus is. (John 17:3)
Jesus humbled himself though He possessed the state of being God. Even would mean as His property.(Phil 2:6)
As Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek as "huparchonta" as possessions, property, etc.
If you rebut, please post evidence (original Greek text), not just explanations from bias translations.
Once again you have not answered my direct question. What did Jesus mean when he said to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"?
Being then in human nature Jesus humbled himself, obedient to the Father even the death of the cross.(Phil 2:8)
And even the Father called Jesus God in Psalms 45:6, whom Jews interpret it the word "God" as referred to their Messiah.
Jews were the people of God in the OT and it is in their time that they understand it what it mean, why you won't believe them and make your own interpretation? (Psa 45:6, Rev 1:8)

Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross

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Re: No man has seen God at any time

Post #120

Post by onewithhim »

Capbook wrote: Fri Jan 17, 2025 12:37 pm
onewithhim wrote: Mon Jan 13, 2025 12:08 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Jan 11, 2025 3:47 pm
onewithhim wrote: Mon Jan 06, 2025 11:37 am
Capbook wrote: Sun Jan 05, 2025 2:35 pm
onewithhim wrote: Mon Dec 23, 2024 2:12 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 21, 2024 1:46 pm
onewithhim wrote: Thu Dec 19, 2024 12:20 pm
Capbook wrote: Sat Dec 14, 2024 11:21 am
onewithhim wrote: Fri Dec 13, 2024 12:15 pm
Who is referred to when saying "his"? That is the Father (God) who is mentioned there. He is the true God, not Jesus.
The last His in the verse is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life
That's right. It refers to God, the Father.
The original Greek text is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this ONE is the true God and eternal life.
Please see below "one" in bold red color.
That sure did refer to Jesus as the true God.
No, it is "this One" who is the Father of Jesus. HIS Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God. The One referred to as "his." It's like replacing the pronoun with the name of the Father of the Son: Jehovah's Son Jesus Christ, this One is the true God. A person looking at this might get the impression that it speaks of Jesus as the "true God," but it can just as feasibly mean that it is the Father that is the true God. My view of this verse is just as compelling as your view. So which view do we side with? We look at all of the thousands of passages that refer to Jehovah the Father as the true God. Jesus himself called his Father that (John 17:3).
God the Father had been referred as "the one" and Jesus Christ as "this one" the true God and life eternal.
I think you would also understand that "the" referred to someone that is far from the speaker. (Father as in heaven)
While "this" refer to what is near and also the nearest antecedent in the original Greek text, whom to this case is Jesus.


1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.
You pick out a verse here and there---very few---that seem to you to refer to Jesus as God. We must look at all the other verses in the Scriptures that tell us differently, and there are hundreds. What did Jesus mean by saying to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"? (John 20:17)
Do you ran out of reason without evidence denying Jesus as true God in 1 John 5:20?
That would be a big hurdle for Christians to experience eternal life by not knowing what truly Jesus is. (John 17:3)
Jesus humbled himself though He possessed the state of being God. Even would mean as His property.(Phil 2:6)
As Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek as "huparchonta" as possessions, property, etc.
If you rebut, please post evidence (original Greek text), not just explanations from bias translations.
Once again you have not answered my direct question. What did Jesus mean when he said to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"?
Being then in human nature Jesus humbled himself, obedient to the Father even the death of the cross.(Phil 2:8)
And even the Father called Jesus God in Psalms 45:6, whom Jews interpret it the word "God" as referred to their Messiah.
Jews were the people of God in the OT and it is in their time that they understand it what it mean, why you won't believe them and make your own interpretation? (Psa 45:6, Rev 1:8)

Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross
Why would we think that Jesus is God when he had to be obedient to God? If he was God he wouldn't have to answer to anyone.
Psalm 45:6 does not say that Jesus is God. You do not consider the Jews' actual rendition of this. They say: "Your divine throne is everlasting; your royal scepter is a scepter of equity." And further: "You love righteousness and hate wickedness; rightly has God, your God chosen to anoint you with oil of gladness over all your peers."

That is the translation found in The Tanahk/ The new JPS Translation according to the traditional Hebrew Text. This rendering is what the writer of Hebrews was referring to, and it doesn't say "Your throne O God..."

You are making your own interpretation, based on biased renderings from your lexicons. Look at what the Jews are writing themselves. Why don't you believe them?

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