My Lord and my God - Shema Trinity

[Wootah]

Thomas says, "My Lord and my God."

https://biblehub.com/text/john/20-28.htm

What did he mean to claim about Jesus?

[brianbbs67]

[Replying to post 102 by PinSeeker]

Its a little disingenuous to say all capital letters. They were just letters as lower and upper case did not exist at this point(Koine) , correct?

[tigger2]

[Replying to post 102 by PinSeeker]

Its a little disingenuous to say all capital letters. They were just letters as lower and upper case did not exist at this point(Koine) , correct?

Greek has capital letters and the early manuscripts were all capitals with lack of punctuation. One of the few things PS got right.

However, they did not distinguish certain words by using an initial capital as we do in English. That is what I was referring to.

[brianbbs67]

[Replying to post 102 by PinSeeker]

Its a little disingenuous to say all capital letters. They were just letters as lower and upper case did not exist at this point(Koine) , correct?

Greek has capital letters and the early manuscripts were all capitals with lack of punctuation. One of the few things PS got right.

However, they did not distinguish certain words by using an initial capital as we do in English. That is what I was referring to.

I did not know they were written in all capitals on purpose. I thought that's how they did things then. How are we to discern the true meaning of the Greek then? Seems like we can't. That's a mystery religion and something I would want to be far from. Thanks for the input. The more I know, the more I don't...

[brianbbs67]

That has concluded me to think, unless we use a OT/Tanakh lense to view the NT, we will never get it right. And even then, God would not be vague. They become more spurious by the day. Don't get me wrong, I never lose faith in God. Man, however, exceeds exspectations to disappoint.

[brianbbs67]

Thomas says, "My Lord and my God."

https://biblehub.com/text/john/20-28.htm

What did he mean to claim about Jesus?

I believe the original quote can be equated to holy sh*t, its real.

[otseng]

I believe the original quote can be equated to holy sh*t, its real.

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[tigger2]

[Replying to post 110 by brianbbs67]

Greek capital letters, or “majuscules," alone were used until about the 6th century A.D. when miniscules were added to the alphabet as 'lower case' characters.

[PinSeeker]

I've presented factual, honest, easily looked up information for you (and others).

That you think it's factual, I have no doubt.

That you're honest in your opinion, I have no doubt.

"Easily looked up" on your own website (you said it yourself -- "my simplest studies"), which only give links to other JW websites? I mean, all I can do is chuckle at that...

Your responses have been denials without any actual evidence and accusatory references to my 'erroneous' studies (which you obviously do not actually examine anyway).

No, they've been factual rebuttals that you choose to label "denials," and information offered not in rebuttal to anything you posted, really, but that we are all well aware goes against Jehovah's Witness teachinig. To this end, my posts 82 and 87 we both consisted of nothing but information which you refuted, so really, all we have is a difference of opinion, which we knew from the get-go.

But yes, I don't examine Jehovah's Witness studies anymore, because I've studied them all at length, and nothing you've said -- absolutely nothing -- has been any different than what I've seen many, many times before. In my humble opinion, at least, they were wrong then, and they're wrong now, and they'll always be wrong. John 1:1c is not translated to "the word was a god," but rather, correctly, "the Word was God." And Philippians 2:5-11 is translated very poorly in the NWT, also. Jesus, quite simply, is God with us -- Immanuel -- and in the form ('morphe' in the Greek, meaning not merely "shape," as in English, but rather, in the Greek, is a philosophical term that means "the outward expression of an inner essence") of God.

Because of your non-responsive 'responses;' I will try very hard (old, poor memory) to ignore you in the future. I would much rather have a serious discussion, but you obviously do not want it.

You want a one-sided "discussion," where you can ram what you want down others' throats -- which is no discussion at all. You might as well ignore me, because that's what you've been doing this whole time; that's what a one-sided "discussion" is.

Grace and peace to you.

[brianbbs67]

[Replying to post 110 by brianbbs67]

Greek capital letters, or “majuscules," alone were used until about the 6th century A.D. when miniscules were added to the alphabet as 'lower case' characters.

Without googling it, Are you saying the 4 Gospels original manuscripts were in all capitals by choice or that Greek had no lower case until 6 AD?

[tigger2]

[Replying to post 116 by brianbbs67]

My understanding is that all manuscripts were written with all words constructed of 'capital' letters, and that the miniscules weren't even available until ca. 6th century A.D. Then, I believe, you would find manuscripts copied in all capitals OR copied in all minuscules. Eventually they would be used together as found in modern texts.