Why did Peter deny Christ THREE times?

[Riaan]

Christ told Peter that he would deny him three times, which is curious. Why three times, and not "you will deny me", or you will deny me six times? The most likely reason is that he meant that Peter would one day find out about the physical relationship he had with three boys, namely John, James and ... Judas, in other words, that Jesus was gay (Para 7). And Peter did when the naked you man fled away after Christ's arrest.

[FWI]

[Replying to post 9 by brianbbs67]

Where is sex without marriage in the Law or Bible described as sin?

Simply, the words (written or spoken) of God is His law. Thus, acting contrary to these words is sin. In Genesis 2:24, it is stated that a man shall leave his father and mother to be joined, with a wife. Hence, they shall become one flesh! This is a law!

Obviously, to become "one flesh" means to be united sexually, where this sexual activity is a symbol of a man and a woman bounded and melted together both in heart and body, in mutual giving and total oneness. So, when husband and wife become one flesh, they are no longer two, but actually one in God's viewpoint. Hence, having casual sex outside of marriage is against the will of God or a sin.

In Genesis 1:28, God declares that Adam and Eve (as husband and wife) should become fruitful. Thus, being fruitful and the binding of the marriage vow, are the only reasons for sexual activities. All other sexual actions are illicit (biblically)…

Therefore, in the Israelite writings, the words used for sexual activities outside of marriage are: adultery, harlotry and prostitution. However, there are no bible verses, which claim that sexual activity outside of marriage is approved of by God…Thus, if God doesn't approve of the activity in question, it is considered against His will.

So, it should be clear that two of the ten commandment (adultery and covetousness) are commands, which include sexual activity outside the marriage of a man and woman.

This is supported in the Christian era scriptures. Where, Matthew, Mark, John, as well as Paul, use the Greek word porneia (G4202). Which is defined as: illicit sexual intercourse or adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with relatives, a divorced man or woman and animals. It is also referring to the defilement of idolatry.

There is nothing positive, related to the Hebrew and Greek words for fornication that can be derived from the bible, which support sexual relations, outside of marriage. So, the truth is the opposite of this contention (sex outside of marriage) and a law of God…Since, the Christ was not married and did not sin, he avoided any type of sexual activities.

[brianbbs67]

[Replying to post 9 by brianbbs67]

Where is sex without marriage in the Law or Bible described as sin?

Simply, the words (written or spoken) of God is His law. Thus, acting contrary to these words is sin. In Genesis 2:24, it is stated that a man shall leave his father and mother to be joined, with a wife. Hence, they shall become one flesh! This is a law!

Obviously, to become "one flesh" means to be united sexually, where this sexual activity is a symbol of a man and a woman bounded and melted together both in heart and body, in mutual giving and total oneness. So, when husband and wife become one flesh, they are no longer two, but actually one in God's viewpoint. Hence, having casual sex outside of marriage is against the will of God or a sin.

In Genesis 1:28, God declares that Adam and Eve (as husband and wife) should become fruitful. Thus, being fruitful and the binding of the marriage vow, are the only reasons for sexual activities. All other sexual actions are illicit (biblically)…

Therefore, in the Israelite writings, the words used for sexual activities outside of marriage are: adultery, harlotry and prostitution. However, there are no bible verses, which claim that sexual activity outside of marriage is approved of by God…Thus, if God doesn't approve of the activity in question, it is considered against His will.

So, it should be clear that two of the ten commandment (adultery and covetousness) are commands, which include sexual activity outside the marriage of a man and woman.

This is supported in the Christian era scriptures. Where, Matthew, Mark, John, as well as Paul, use the Greek word porneia (G4202). Which is defined as: illicit sexual intercourse or adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with relatives, a divorced man or woman and animals. It is also referring to the defilement of idolatry.

There is nothing positive, related to the Hebrew and Greek words for fornication that can be derived from the bible, which support sexual relations, outside of marriage. So, the truth is the opposite of this contention (sex outside of marriage) and a law of God…Since, the Christ was not married and did not sin, he avoided any type of sexual activities.

I agree it should be avoided. but where is premarital sex outlawed? The pornea referred to in the greek had to do with temple prostitutes and the sex involved after false god sacrifice. What question did the high priest ask David and his company, after coming in famished from their hunting trip?(before he let them eat the show bread, Christ refers to it too)

[JehovahsWitness]

[Replying to post 12 by brianbbs67]

The Mosaic law did not prohibit premarital sex, it prohibited specific sexual behaviours namely : it was a punishable offense for a man to have intercourse with somebody else's wife, a single woman, a prostitute, a close family member, an animal or a member of the same sex.

Given the above how exactly was one (male or female) to have legal premarital sex? In short, the effect of the body of prohibitive laws was to "outlaw" premarital sexual intercourse.



RELATED POSTS

What is fornication?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 257#780257

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http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 188#954188

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http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 971#402971

[Checkpoint]

[Replying to post 8 by Riaan]

Perhaps you should read the entire text, specifically the allegations of sexual misconduct brought against Christ (Was Jesus Gay?, Section 10).

Perhaps not.

The text we read is the Bible.

It contains no such allegations.

[brianbbs67]

So God's law is important?? and sadly no one asked the high priest's reply in the OT.

[FWI]

[Replying to post 12 by brianbbs67]

The pornea referred to in the Greek had to do with temple prostitutes and the sex involved after false god sacrifice.

Not really, in Strong's definition, the Greek word porneia can be related to any type of prostitution (temple or otherwise). But, this definition is not the only one explaining this word's meanings. When, reviewing this Greek word's usage in several Christian era writings, it is clear that temple prostitution is not being referenced! Such as: Matthew 19:9, Mark 7:21-23, John 8:41 and 1 Cor. 7:2.

But where is premarital sex outlawed?

I've already given you a few examples to no avail! But, to continue with another one; consider Genesis 39…Joseph, being sold as a slave to an officer of Pharaoh, became overseer of the officer's house and all he had. And, it came to pass that his master's wife wanted to lie with Joseph, but he refused!

In Genesis 39:9, Joseph states that he could not do such a great wickedness and sin against God…Now, Joseph (being unmarried) could not be charged with adultery, if he had decided to comply with the wishes of the married woman. He, also couldn't be forced to marry her, because she was already married! So, would he just get a pass? No, he wouldn't and he makes the claim himself. He would have sinned…Therefore, the meaning of the Hebrew and Greek words for fornication, falls under the commandments of adultery and covetousness.

Yet, the interesting part is: How did Joseph know that it was a sin? The word adultery wasn't introduced until about 500+ years, after Joseph's encounter with a married woman. So, the only references that we can go back to is those in Genesis 1:28 and 2:24…Hence, sexual intercourse can only be lawful when a man and woman are married.

What question did the high priest ask David and his company, after coming in famished from their hunting trip?(before he let them eat the show bread, Christ refers to it too)

There seems to be only one instance (in 1 Samuel 21), where David is requesting bread from Ahimelech, the priest. Yet, your question doesn't fit the narrative. David was alone (verse 1)! Thus, the first question that Ahimelech asked David was: Why was he alone? David tells the priest that he was on a secret mission from King Saul and that his servants were sent to the assigned place (verse 2). Hence, he wasn't on a hunting trip. This is clear in verse 8, because David didn't have a weapon and is requesting one from the priest.

The second question that the priest asked David was: Are the servants (young men) ceremonially clean or sanctified to eat the holy bread? David answered: Truly, women have been kept from us about three days since I came out…And, the vessels (bodies) of the young men are holy (verse 5). The idea of the young men (servants) being holy is referring to their virginity or that they weren't married, which David is affirming.

Also, I don't see any connection with this example and the Christ. So, it would be best for you to include the biblical reference (chapter and verse) for your question.

[brianbbs67]

[Replying to post 12 by brianbbs67]

The pornea referred to in the Greek had to do with temple prostitutes and the sex involved after false god sacrifice.

Not really, in Strong's definition, the Greek word porneia can be related to any type of prostitution (temple or otherwise). But, this definition is not the only one explaining this word's meanings. When, reviewing this Greek word's usage in several Christian era writings, it is clear that temple prostitution is not being referenced! Such as: Matthew 19:9, Mark 7:21-23, John 8:41 and 1 Cor. 7:2.

But where is premarital sex outlawed?

I've already given you a few examples to no avail! But, to continue with another one; consider Genesis 39…Joseph, being sold as a slave to an officer of Pharaoh, became overseer of the officer's house and all he had. And, it came to pass that his master's wife wanted to lie with Joseph, but he refused!

That is adultery, clearly defined as wrong. Joseph was not married but she was.

In Genesis 39:9, Joseph states that he could not do such a great wickedness and sin against God…Now, Joseph (being unmarried) could not be charged with adultery, if he had decided to comply with the wishes of the married woman. He, also couldn't be forced to marry her, because she was already married! So, would he just get a pass? No, he wouldn't and he makes the claim himself. He would have sinned…Therefore, the meaning of the Hebrew and Greek words for fornication, falls under the commandments of adultery and covetousness.

Yet, the interesting part is: How did Joseph know that it was a sin? The word adultery wasn't introduced until about 500+ years, after Joseph's encounter with a married woman. So, the only references that we can go back to is those in Genesis 1:28 and 2:24…Hence, sexual intercourse can only be lawful when a man and woman are married.

What was adultery called before this?

What question did the high priest ask David and his company, after coming in famished from their hunting trip?(before he let them eat the show bread, Christ refers to it too)

There seems to be only one instance (in 1 Samuel 21), where David is requesting bread from Ahimelech, the priest. Yet, your question doesn't fit the narrative. David was alone (verse 1)! Thus, the first question that Ahimelech asked David was: Why was he alone? David tells the priest that he was on a secret mission from King Saul and that his servants were sent to the assigned place (verse 2). Hence, he wasn't on a hunting trip. This is clear in verse 8, because David didn't have a weapon and is requesting one from the priest.

[i]Correct, i mixed the hunting trip up.[/i]

The second question that the priest asked David was: Are the servants (young men) ceremonially clean or sanctified to eat the holy bread? David answered: Truly, women have been kept from us about three days since I came out…And, the vessels (bodies) of the young men are holy (verse 5). The idea of the young men (servants) being holy is referring to their virginity or that they weren't married, which David is affirming.

So 3 days without a woman makes one holy? The JPS says " we are without women as always." Either way, unless you break a marriage vow, whether married or not, it seems its not outlawed.


Also, I don't see any connection with this example and the Christ. So, it would be best for you to include the biblical reference (chapter and verse) for your question.

As to your last point, I see no reference of any dating the Christ did.

[For_The_Kingdom]

Peace to you,

[Replying to post 1 by Riaan]

Peter denied Christ three times because three times people asked (or pointed out) that Peter was one of the disciples of Christ.


Christ simply spoke the truth. Peace again to you!
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

Yeah, pretty much. Wow, I see why so many different heretic interpretations of the Scriptures began to arise. As you said, Jesus simple spoke the truth, about how many times he would be denied by Peter.

There is just no reason for the over-analyzations, yet people insist on coming up with these wild, wacky interpretations when it just isn't necessary...especially not with this particular verse.