Is Trinitarianism compatible with Judaism?

[Elijah John]

Is Trintiarianism and Jesus-worship compatible with Judaism? The religion of Jesus?

Where are the roots of Trinitarianism and Messiah-worship in the Hebrew Bible "Old" Testament?

[brianbbs67]

GOD is responsible for the writing: Deut 6:4 Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God the LORD is ONE! HE is also responsible for the sentence: Gen 2:24 For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and be united to his wife, and they will become ONE flesh.

The Hebrew for ONE is the same word in both. Since the obvious meaning of Gen 2:24 speaks of a UNITY, we are assured that there may be a direct parallel with the word ONE in Deut 6:4 as also referring to a UNITY.

But alas it is the tradition of the rabbis that it refers to the numeral 1, as it may, rather than to a UNITY creating a single-ness as in Gen 2:24, and it has only been by the further revelation of our LORD to us that we have come to understand that the traditions of the rabbis were wrong about both the UNITY of GOD and about the Messiah whom they rejected.

Very well, but being One with someone is not the same as being that person. I and my wife are One. But, we are 2 different people, I assure you. Christ is One with the father, but no where does he claim to be the father. Unless, you hold to that verse, "he who has seen me, has seen the Father". It is isolated and was a comparison.

[Elijah John]

GOD is responsible for the writing: Deut 6:4 Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God the LORD is ONE! HE is also responsible for the sentence: Gen 2:24 For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and be united to his wife, and they will become ONE flesh.

The Hebrew for ONE is the same word in both. Since the obvious meaning of Gen 2:24 speaks of a UNITY, we are assured that there may be a direct parallel with the word ONE in Deut 6:4 as also referring to a UNITY.

But alas it is the tradition of the rabbis that it refers to the numeral 1, as it may, rather than to a UNITY creating a single-ness as in Gen 2:24, and it has only been by the further revelation of our LORD to us that we have come to understand that the traditions of the rabbis were wrong about both the UNITY of GOD and about the Messiah whom they rejected.

In the first verse you cite, that of the Shema, there are no disparate elements to be unified into oneness.

In the second one, regarding marraige, there are.

Do you believe the Shema in any way teaches the Trinity? If so, isn't that reading into it something that just isn't there?

Also, you mention the tradition of the Rabbis being responsible for the notion of absolute Oneness. Isn't it far more likely that it is the traditon of Trinitarians who read the Trinity into the Hebrew Scriptures where it doesn't exist?

What about the "original intent" of the OT writers? Thier tradition of belief. Do you suppose they believed God was One? Or three in One?

If the latter, what is your evidence for this?

[polonius]

GOD is responsible for the writing: Deut 6:4 Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God the LORD is ONE! HE is also responsible for the sentence: Gen 2:24 For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and be united to his wife, and they will become ONE flesh.

The Hebrew for ONE is the same word in both. Since the obvious meaning of Gen 2:24 speaks of a UNITY, we are assured that there may be a direct parallel with the word ONE in Deut 6:4 as also referring to a UNITY.

But alas it is the tradition of the rabbis that it refers to the numeral 1, as it may, rather than to a UNITY creating a single-ness as in Gen 2:24, and it has only been by the further revelation of our LORD to us that we have come to understand that the traditions of the rabbis were wrong about both the UNITY of GOD and about the Messiah whom they rejected.

In the first verse you cite, that of the Shema, there are no disparate elements to be unified into oneness.

In the second one, regarding marraige, there are.

Do you believe the Shema in any way teaches the Trinity? If so, isn't that reading into it something that just isn't there?

Also, you mention the tradition of the Rabbis being responsible for the notion of absolute Oneness. Isn't it far more likely that it is the traditon of Trinitarians who read the Trinity into the Hebrew Scriptures where it doesn't exist?

What about the "original intent" of the OT writers? Thier tradition of belief. Do you suppose they believed God was One? Or three in One?

If the latter, what is your evidence for this?

RESPONSE:

"Hear O Israel. The Lord is One" That is monotheism.