Elijah John wrote:
“If ye keep my commandments, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and abide in his love.�
John's Jesus speaks as though the Father's commandments were not given directly to the people but only directly to Jesus.
The problem I see with this is that when God gave the children of Israel his commandments directly, they balked and pleaded with Moses to mediate God's law for them.
In the Synoptics, Jesus, by contrast said "if you would enter life, keep the commandments".
This is not the only place where John's Jesus is at odds with Jesus as presented in the Synoptics.
Dealing with the one you have presented, I would say that when you keep God's commandments, you are keeping your God's commandments, no? We are told that when the commandmetns are kept, "I will be your God and you will be my people". I keep my God's commandments. They are for me, therefore they are my commandments. Jesus makes this same point with regards to the sabbath when he points out (from the synoptic Mark 2:27) that "the sabbath was made for man, not man for the sabbath".
John was a mystic, he is pointing out that "the word" is the mediator, and when we read through the entire old testament, we see the word coming to the prophets. The word of God has always been God's mediator. God's word is the direct path to God.
John's Jesus teaches the disciples to pray in Jesus name. The Synoptic Jesus, by contrast, only teaches to hallow the Father's name when praying.
If you keep God's commandments according to God's will and authority, you are not just under God's authority but in line with God's authority. You are operating in line with God's authority to love God, sanctify his name, his Sabbaths, honor your parents, refrain from stealing, cheating, adultery etc. When you teach your children to pray they are praying according to your direct authority because you have been given this authority by God. That's what "praying in your name" means.
For debate. In light of the above examples, do you believe the real Jesus taught direct access to God, as suggested in the Synoptics, or mediated access to God as suggested in the Gospel of John?
There is no effective difference. One can't gain direct access to transcendence. The only access is immanent within, and therefore must be mediated by the immanence of God's spirit.
Also, I do believe there are other problems with harmonizing John 15.10 to other Bible teachings, namely the teachings of Paul. Can you detect these or other problems with John 15.10 as well?
I can't think of anything Paul says that is contradictory, or in need of harminization.