I started out looking for an answer to a question: Could anyone go to heaven in the OT times since, Paul says no one can be righteous under the law-we all are sinners.
In my search I came across the following passage which raised an additional point.--that means of salvation under the OT is no different the means of salvation under the NT. If so, why did Jesus Die? i
This is the passage--
"The Old Testament teaches a righteousness based upon works of the Law that God passed down to man:
"Suppose there is a righteous man who does what is just and right. He does not eat at the mountain shrines or look to the idols of the house of Israel. He does not defile his neighbor's wife or lie with a woman during her period. He does not oppress anyone, but returns what he took in pledge for a loan. He does not commit robbery but gives his food to the hungry and provides clothing for the naked. He does not lend at usury or take excessive interest. He withholds his hand from doing wrong and judges fairly between man and man. He follows my decrees and faithfully keeps my laws. That man is righteous; he will surely live, declares the Sovereign LORD" (Ezekial 18:5-9, NIV.)
Tto attain such a righteousness, one must obey all of the law. "The LORD commanded us to obey all these decrees and to fear the LORD our God, so that we might always prosper and be kept alive, as is the case today. And if we are careful to obey all this law before the LORD our God, as he has commanded us, that will be our righteousness" (Deuteronomy 6:24-25, NIV.) Similar statements are found in the Old Testament in Numbers 15:40; Deuteronomy 11:32, 12:28; Joshua 1:7, 23:6, and in many other references. The breaking of a single tenet of the entire law is the equivalent of breaking the entire law. Deuteronomy 28:58-59, NIV.)
The only remedy provided for those who lived in Old Testament times was the forgiveness that God gives when the sinner responds to God in repentance through faith and trust in Him.
"And if I say to the wicked man, 'You will surely die,' but he then turns away from his sin and does what is just and right -- if he gives back what he took in pledge for a loan, returns what he has stolen, follows the decrees that give life, and does no evil, he will surely live; he will not die. None of the sins he has committed will be remembered against him. He has done what is just and right; he will surely live. Yet your countrymen say, 'The way of the Lord is not just.' But it is their way that is not just. If a righteous man turns from his righteousness and does evil, he will die for it. And if a wicked man turns away from his wickedness and does what is just and right, he will live by doing so" (Ezekial 33:14-19 NIV.)"
If this passage is correct, it seems then that forgiveness of sins is accomplished under the old law the same as under the new. I don’t see the difference. Both require repentance and faith.
antonio
The OT means of Salvation are the same as NT means.
Moderator: Moderators
Re: The OT means of Salvation are the same as NT means.
Post #41Yours is indeed a nice and a perpect perception with respect to anyone's salvation, be it in the OT or in the NT or in the present day time of ours. All it takes to find God is the right faith in God the Almighty where repentance is one of the elements of faith in God. Right faith in God will bring us directly to God himself (direct encounter with God) and this will further lead us under the direct tutelage of God. And it is in this stage that we can learn from God himself that the way of salvation of Adam and Eve in the OT is the same way that "antonio et.al today" must observe and practice in their life. So in the end, God, not the bible, is all it takes for us to know all the things we wanted to know in our life.antonio wrote: If this passage is correct, it seems then that forgiveness of sins is accomplished under the old law the same as under the new. I don’t see the difference. Both require repentance and faith.
antonio