Death Of The Gods

[RugMatic]

Who were the gods that were divested of their divinity and compelled to die like mortals in Psalm 82?

My Extremely Literal Translation:

1 Elohim stands in the gathering of El. In between the elohim he judges.

2 How long will you judge awful and accept the face of evil?

3 Judge poor and orphan. Hurt and empty vindicate.

4 Rescue poor and desperate. From hand of wicked grab.

5 They don't know or understand, in darkness they walk.

6 (I is stressed twice ) I ... I said elohim you all are. Elyon's sons you all.

7 Certainly, like Adam all you die, and like one of the rulers you all fall.

8 Get up Elohim, judge the land. For you inherit all nations.


Asaph is giving us his beliefs in this Psalm. He believed the gods were unjust and are now being punished. They are forced to die like Adam. After their death God inherits the nations, presumably from Elyon.

Jesus interprets this as referencing Jews. John 10:35 I said you are all gods. If he called them gods to whom the word of God came ( obviously the Old Testament )...

What do you guys think? Were the death of the gods the Jews , or the death of actual divine beings.


Bear in mind Asaph was not a Baptist, Jehovah Witness, Pentecostal, or even a Christian

I don't think Jesus' interpretation can be pressed. If the death of the gods are the death of the Jews, then why did Asaph distinguish them from Adam in verse 7? The gods are not descendants of Adam, but the Jews most definitely were.

John 10:35 seems to reflect an early Christian interpretation after the destruction of the Temple; Jerusalem devastated and many Jews dead; but Asaph would shake his head at this.

[The Tanager]

[Replying to RugMatic in post #1]

One possible interpretation of Psalm 82 is that it is referring to human rulers/judges who are not ruling the way God wants. They were called to a higher ethic (being sons of God, v.6), but are acting just like any other ruler (v. 7) and Asaph is calling for justice.

Jesus would then possibly be drawing upon that kind of interpretation as an indictment of the way the Jewish leaders were doing the same kind of thing while claiming to be the one coming to bring God's true way.

[JehovahsWitness]

What do you guys think? Were the death of the gods the Jews... or the death of actual divine beings.

Neither. The writer was not refering to "the Jews" as in all the Jewish people (men, women and children) but to Jewish judges appointed by the Mosaic law. Jesus interpretation as such was not contested by the religious leaders of his day with whom he is recorded as conversing with on the subject.

[RugMatic]

[Replying to RugMatic in post #1]

One possible interpretation of Psalm 82 is that it is referring to human rulers/judges who are not ruling the way God wants. They were called to a higher ethic (being sons of God, v.6), but are acting just like any other ruler (v. 7) and Asaph is calling for justice.

Jesus would then possibly be drawing upon that kind of interpretation as an indictment of the way the Jewish leaders were doing the same kind of thing while claiming to be the one coming to bring God's true way.

The psalm condemns all the judges. If he's talking about the riddance of human judges we're left with anarchy. I doubt Asaph is longing for that. If he's deifying judges for sermonic reasons then he didn't think his psalm through very well, but you're correct, its possible. It might be a hastefully composed, excessively hyperbolic rant.

[JehovahsWitness]

The psalm condemns all the judges

Obviously the Psalmist is not addressing all the judges that have or will ever live in every country on earth. The Psalm is a message to the Judges of Israel only. It is not a blanket damnation nor a call for their removal but a call that the God ordained judges of the nation of Israel respect the law and render justice.

PSALM 82:2, 3

How long will you continue to judge with injustice Aad show partiality to the wicked? (Selah) ; 3 Defend the lowly and the fatherless. Render justice to the helpless and destitute.

This is certainly not a call for anarchy

[The Tanager]

The psalm condemns all the judges. If he's talking about the riddance of human judges we're left with anarchy. I doubt Asaph is longing for that. If he's deifying judges for sermonic reasons then he didn't think his psalm through very well, but you're correct, its possible. It might be a hastefully composed, excessively hyperbolic rant.

The only thing I see that could be interpreted as Asaph condemning all human judges is v. 7, but why read that in such a hyper-literal fashion? All languages use exaggerations like this; I don’t see how this is excessively hyperbolic. Asaph is saying God hates the injustice that exists and is calling them to justice for the poor, suffering, needy, etc. (v. 3-4). I think this poem is very well thought out and crafted, but I’m also a poet at heart, so maybe I'm biased and guilty of being excessively hyperbolic myself at times.

[RugMatic]

The psalm condemns all the judges. If he's talking about the riddance of human judges we're left with anarchy. I doubt Asaph is longing for that. If he's deifying judges for sermonic reasons then he didn't think his psalm through very well, but you're correct, its possible. It might be a hastefully composed, excessively hyperbolic rant.

The only thing I see that could be interpreted as Asaph condemning all human judges is v. 7, but why read that in such a hyper-literal fashion? All languages use exaggerations like this; I don’t see how this is excessively hyperbolic. Asaph is saying God hates the injustice that exists and is calling them to justice for the poor, suffering, needy, etc. (v. 3-4). I think this poem is very well thought out and crafted, but I’m also a poet at heart, so maybe I'm biased and guilty of being excessively hyperbolic myself at times.

You're lenient with the words in the Bible, but treat other people's words in a hyper-literal fashion.

Jesus interpreted this psalm in John 10:35. He didn't interpret it as referencing judges.Is it not written, I said you are all gods? If he called them gods who received the word of god, and scripture cannot be broken...
The Jews received the word of god, the scripture that cannot be broken. I can't imagine how else to interpret this.

On any event, Jesus disagrees with your interpretation and I disagree with Jesus's interpretation and I disagree your interpretation.

[BrotherBerry]

The psalm condemns all the judges

Obviously the Psalmist is not addressing all the judges that have or will ever live in every country on earth. The Psalm is a message to the Judges of Israel only. It is not a blanket damnation nor a call for their removal but a call that the God ordained judges of the nation of Israel respect the law and render justice.

PSALM 82:2, 3

How long will you continue to judge with injustice Aad show partiality to the wicked? (Selah) ; 3 Defend the lowly and the fatherless. Render justice to the helpless and destitute.

This is certainly not a call for anarchy

Its not talking about Israel, Israel isn't even mentioned in the psalm. Its condemning fallen angels, Jude 6. Hope this helps. To learn more go to www.Gotquestions.org

[BrotherBerry]

Who were the gods that were divested of their divinity and compelled to die like mortals in Psalm 82?

My Extremely Literal Translation:

1 Elohim stands in the gathering of El. In between the elohim he judges.

2 How long will you judge awful and accept the face of evil?

3 Judge poor and orphan. Hurt and empty vindicate.

4 Rescue poor and desperate. From hand of wicked grab.

5 They don't know or understand, in darkness they walk.

6 (I is stressed twice ) I ... I said elohim you all are. Elyon's sons you all.

7 Certainly, like Adam all you die, and like one of the rulers you all fall.

8 Get up Elohim, judge the land. For you inherit all nations.


Asaph is giving us his beliefs in this Psalm. He believed the gods were unjust and are now being punished. They are forced to die like Adam. After their death God inherits the nations, presumably from Elyon.

Jesus interprets this as referencing Jews. John 10:35 I said you are all gods. If he called them gods to whom the word of God came ( obviously the Old Testament )...

What do you guys think? Were the death of the gods the Jews , or the death of actual divine beings.


Bear in mind Asaph was not a Baptist, Jehovah Witness, Pentecostal, or even a Christian

I don't think Jesus' interpretation can be pressed. If the death of the gods are the death of the Jews, then why did Asaph distinguish them from Adam in verse 7? The gods are not descendants of Adam, but the Jews most definitely were.

John 10:35 seems to reflect an early Christian interpretation after the destruction of the Temple; Jerusalem devastated and many Jews dead; but Asaph would shake his head at this.

The Psalm is about bad angels. Jude 6. Hope this helps. To learn more go to www.Gotquestions.org

[The Tanager]

You're lenient with the words in the Bible, but treat other people's words in a hyper-literal fashion.

Everything should be taken, how they most plausibly read. You are here, so you can certainly correct any misunderstandings.

Jesus interpreted this psalm in John 10:35. He didn't interpret it as referencing judges.Is it not written, I said you are all gods? If he called them gods who received the word of god, and scripture cannot be broken...
The Jews received the word of god, the scripture that cannot be broken. I can't imagine how else to interpret this.

On any event, Jesus disagrees with your interpretation and I disagree with Jesus's interpretation and I disagree your interpretation.

Your interpretation of Jesus’ interpretation disagrees with my interpretation of Jesus’ interpretation, yes. I’ll share more thoughts on the context for my own interpretation. Right before this situation Jesus was talking about having a flock of sheep (vv. 1-6) and being able to provide abundant life for them (7-10), sacrificially caring for them at the cost of his own life (11-18). Some people think he’s demented (20), while others point to how he cares for the lowly, such as the blind (21) and is doing good. The same kind of stuff that Psalm 82 shows God wants of the rulers in charge.

Then comes the feast of the Dedication in Jerusalem (v. 22), where Jesus is walking among the Jewish leaders/religious rulers (23-24) that, according to the scriptures, should be caring for the poor and oppressed, among other things. They ask him if he is claiming to be the Messiah (24) who is prophesied (as they know) to be one who will care for the poor and oppressed and rule in God’s ways. Jesus answers that he’s already told them and his deeds have backed it up (25).

He then says they are not a part of his flock and that the Father is with him (26-29). Jesus is saying the Jewish leaders are outside of what God is doing, which is all about bringing justice and God’s ways to the earth; that is what the kingdom of God is all about. Which fits in nicely with the message of Psalm 82 and a good one to bring up, as it would indict the Jewish leaders as being in the place of the unjust rulers. But I didn’t say that’s all John 10 is about.

Jesus also makes a claim of divinity (30) that the Jewish leaders are ready to stone him for (31-33). While bringing up Psalm 82 probably has the implied indictment of the leaders, Jesus is also distinguishing himself from the “gods” of Psalm 82, those leaders who were supposed to be providing justice in this world but weren’t, by saying he isn’t just someone the word of God came to, but that he was with God, set apart, and sent into the world. Jesus is comparing himself to the word of God in Psalm 82, not the ‘gods” to whom the word of God comes. He doubles down on his claim to divinity and says the word of God has come to them as him.

Thank you, again, for hearing me out and continuing to share your thoughts.