Three days /three nights and the Pharisees

[rstrats]

When responding to the Pharisees, why do you suppose the Messiah made the specific point that He would be in the "heart of the earth" for 3 days and 3 nights?

[boatsnguitars]

[JehovahsWitness]

Why wasn't his death idiomatic? He could have been sleeping in a cave for 3 days and nights - "dead to the world".

Depends on how you interpret it ...

True. But when it comes to the execution of Christ the gospel writers refer to both Roman and Jewish authorities which literally existed and specifically state Jesus was condemned to death before real historical figures, there seems no viable reason to presume his [Jesus] death (arguably refered to by both the Christian and secular sources) was being presented in the text as an idiomatic nap.

I would be interested in any biblical reference to support such an alternative reading.


JW

[boatsnguitars]

Why wasn't his death idiomatic? He could have been sleeping in a cave for 3 days and nights - "dead to the world".

Depends on how you interpret it ...

True. But when it comes to the execution of Christ the gospel writers refer to both Roman and Jewish authorities which literally existed and specifically state Jesus was condemned to death before real historical figures, there seems no viable reason to presume his [Jesus] death (arguably refered to by both the Christian and secular sources) was being presented in the text as an idiomatic nap.

I would be interested in any biblical reference to support such an alternative reading.


JW

I've attached a very complete explanation for the reading. While you fixate on the idea that the Bible is a complete book, that magically formed because that's what god wanted to tell you is not my problem. Reality is what it is - we all know the Bible was voted on by Church fathers years laters, with the stories trickling in over the decades after Paul's death.
You are welcome to pretend there is some other Energy at work, but no one else does.
Believe what you will, but one could read the Bible as literal truth and still come to the conclusion that the death and resurrection of Jesus was metaphorical and that one's soul lives with God forever, and that a literal resurrection is only a idiomatic vehicle the early writers used to make it more accessible.

Please accept that you alone don't have the monopoly on how to speak for God.

[JehovahsWitness]

Why wasn't his death idiomatic? He could have been sleeping in a cave for 3 days and nights - "dead to the world".

Depends on how you interpret it ...

True. But when it comes to the execution of Christ the gospel writers refer to both Roman and Jewish authorities which literally existed and specifically state Jesus was condemned to death before real historical figures, there seems no viable reason to presume his [Jesus] death (arguably refered to by both the Christian and secular sources) was being presented in the text as an idiomatic nap.

I would be interested in any biblical reference to support such an alternative reading.


JW

I've attached a very complete explanation for the reading. ...

I don't see a single scripture that supports an idiomatic reading of the death of Christ. May I remind you this is T&D and not an discission of whether or not not the bible canon is complete.

Would you like to try again?


JW

[JehovahsWitness]

Why wasn't his death idiomatic? He could have been sleeping in a cave for 3 days and nights - "dead to the world".

Depends on how you interpret it ...

True. But when it comes to the execution of Christ the gospel writers refer to both Roman and Jewish authorities which literally existed and specifically state Jesus was condemned to death before real historical figures, there seems no viable reason to presume his [Jesus] death (arguably refered to by both the Christian and secular sources) was being presented in the text as an idiomatic nap.

I would be interested in any biblical reference to support such an alternative reading.


JW

I've attached a very complete explanation for the reading. ...

I don't see a single scripture in your post that supports an idiomatic reading of the death of Christ. Furthermore may I remind you this is T&D and not an discission of whether or not not the bible canon is complete.

Would you like to try again?


JW

[boatsnguitars]

Why wasn't his death idiomatic? He could have been sleeping in a cave for 3 days and nights - "dead to the world".

Depends on how you interpret it ...

True. But when it comes to the execution of Christ the gospel writers refer to both Roman and Jewish authorities which literally existed and specifically state Jesus was condemned to death before real historical figures, there seems no viable reason to presume his [Jesus] death (arguably refered to by both the Christian and secular sources) was being presented in the text as an idiomatic nap.

I would be interested in any biblical reference to support such an alternative reading.


JW

I've attached a very complete explanation for the reading. ...

I don't see a single scripture in your post that supports an idiomatic reading of the death of Christ. Furthermore may I remind you this is T&D and not an discission of whether or not not the bible canon is complete.

Would you like to try again?


JW

I am responding according to doctrine - just not your specific doctrine.

Bishop Shelby Spong is a Christian. He believes in Jesus and that Jesus died for our sins. He wrote the explanation for his belief and - I might add - he's actually studied the Bible, not just Jehovah Witness propaganda. He believes the Canon is complete. This is not about that discussion.


Perhaps you'd like to get off your high horse in assuming you are the only one to determine which Christian is interpreting the Bible properly?

[JehovahsWitness]

I am responding according to doctrine...

I don't care about your church doctrine . If a reading is unsupported by scripture it has no place in a debate forum. If you have bible passages to support your "doctrine" present them.

If you feel unable to quote scripture yourself you could copy paste an extract written by someone else (the Bishop of your choice) but at least one which deals with the point under discussions, namely: an idiomatic death of Christ.

In any case, again so far I see a second response but still no scripture; would you feel more comfortable over at C&A where actual knowledge of the contents of the bible is less important?


JW

[boatsnguitars]

[JehovahsWitness]

... I am not questioning the legitimacy of the Bible. ...

Very wise of you. Since the bible is authoritive in this subforum it is a reasonable request that you support your theory with scripture. It is not an unintersting hypothesis that the bible is presenting Christs death as an metaphor for sleep and was hoping for something substanial in support this interpretation. Since I see no scriptures at all in in relation to this, I see no reason to take your argument seriously.

Why wasn't his death idiomatic? He could have been sleeping in a cave for 3 days and nights - "dead to the world".

... you must allow others to see idiom and metaphor within the Sacred Document that is the Bible...

This is not the Vatican and I am not the Pope; its therefore not a question of "allowing" people to see something (people can of course see whatever they wish, regardless of whether it is reality there or not) but this is a debate forum and if someone chooses to propose an interpretation then they should at the very least be willing to support their position with the relevant scripture.

I can see absolutely no relevance in a critique of the New World Translation to the question under discussion.

JW

[Eddie Ramos]

Thursday afternoon: night 1
Friday afternoon: night 2
Saturday afternoon: night 3

Why do you consider "afternoon" to be night-time?

For clarity, I should have said evening, since evening and morning constitute a full day.