JESUS IS NOT YHWH

[onewithhim]

Jesus prayed to YHWH, the Father, not to himself. (E.g., Matthew 26:39,42; John 11:41,42; John 17:1-26.) Would he have been praying to himself?

He continually referred to himself as "God's SON," not YHWH Himself. (John 5:19; John 8:28,29; John 10:36; John 17:1.) Even the Jews who hated him recognized that fact (John 19:7). Can he be his own Son?

He applied Isaiah 61:1,2 to himself, at Luke 4:17-21, showing that he was the one anointed BY YHWH, and sent BY YHWH. There are incontrovertibly two Persons mentioned in the passage, and YHWH is the One calling the shots. The anointed one does what YHWH wants. How could they be the same Person?

Psalm 110 is also applied to Jesus at Acts 2:34,35. He is the "Lord," or Messiah, that YHWH speaks to. Was YHWH talking to Himself?


I think that just these few points would show plainly that Jesus is not YHWH. Can anyone explain how THESE REFERENCES, ABOVE, can possibly agree with the premise that Jesus is YHWH? I'm not asking for other Scriptures to be brought in without commenting ON the verses I am asking about. Please give me your reasoning concerning these particular Scriptures. Thank you.

[onewithhim]

[Replying to tigger 2 in post #590]

Just to add my $.02......As has been said, everywhere "LORD" in all uppercase letters appears in the Old Testament, that is where men have taken away "Jehovah" (YHWH) and inserted "LORD" instead. JWs didn't take it upon themselves to slide Jehovah's name in there in those instances where his name appears in the NWTranslation. It already appears in the original text, as anyone can see who examines a Jewish Bible. JWs stay true to the text. "YHWH" appears 7,000 times in the Hebrew Scriptures. There is evidence that the Divine Name also appeared in the New Testament until somewhere in the 2nd century when it was removed and substituted with "Lord." Certainly wherever the Old Testament was quoted by Jesus and others, Jehovah's name would have been part of the quotation, as it appeared in the Hebrew text which was being quoted.

Example: Joel 2:32: "And everyone who calls on the name of [YHWH]/Jehovah will be saved."

Quotation by Paul in the book of Acts (Acts 2:21: "And everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved." Why should "Lord" be put there in place of Jehovah when the Divine Name appears there in the Hebrew Scriptures? Paul QUOTES Joel 2:32 which contains God's personal name.

[tam]

[tam]

[onewithhim]

[Replying to tam in post #592]
You say that "Jehovah" is the wrong way to pronounce God's name. But wait.....there is no absolute way to pronounce his name, because nobody has heard the correct way to pronounce it. Therefore, "Jehovah" is as acceptable as any pronunciation. However it is pronounced---whether "Jehovah" or "Yahweh" or any of the multiple ways it could be said---it is acceptable. All the pronunciations are coming from the Tetragrammaton, "YHWH," and people know or should know that the Most High God is the one who is represented there. So however the name is pronounced, God Almighty is the one being referred to.

[tigger 2]

[tam]

[onewithhim]

[tam]

[tam]

[onewithhim]

[Replying to tam in post #599]

You may try as you may to belittle the name "Jehovah," but many people will use it because it is the most popular pronunciation, thanks to the 1611 version of the Holy Bible and the English pronunciation shortly after that (from "Iehovah" to "Jehovah"). Someone brought out the point of....if "Yahweh" is the closest pronunciation, why not use it? People avoid any mention of the Father, sadly. Surely Yehoshua guides you to praise his Father, as he does himself.

Remind me please.....what do you call the Father?