You Don't Need to Believe in the Trinity to be Saved?

[2timothy316]

"Correct view" you say. Clear this up for me. You mean one must believe in the basic belief of the trinity to be saved right?

No, I’m saying the complete opposite. I’m explicitly saying one doesn’t have to have the correct/true view of God’s nature (trinitarian or not) to be saved. I’m saying one can be wrong about the trinity and still be saved.

Is this true? One doesn't have to believe in the trinity to be saved?

[onewithhim]

I think it might be better to change "the" to "a".

What is your point?

[Capbook]

... a definite article (name in singular) placed before Father, Son and HS. That I understand as one God in three persons.

That's nonsense. The expression "in the name of..." means "under the authority of"/ representing. This can refer to an individual (In the name of Jesus) , an institution or an entity (in the name of the law*).

Listing w(as in the case of Mat 2i) two individuals and an entity does not render them all EQUAL, much less all Almighty God.

* NOTE "In The name of the law" does not mean that "the law" is a person, with a '
name such as Bill or Jane

Where to find your explanation in the Bible?
The definite article (the) is used before a noun to indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the reader, the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit mentioned in Mat 28:19 in the singular word "name". Grammatical exegesis as they are one in singular "name".
And if they are not equal they should be outside of that singular "name."

[onewithhim]

... a definite article (name in singular) placed before Father, Son and HS. That I understand as one God in three persons.

That's nonsense. The expression "in the name of..." means "under the authority of"/ representing. This can refer to an individual (In the name of Jesus) , an institution or an entity (in the name of the law*).

Listing w(as in the case of Mat 2i) two individuals and an entity does not render them all EQUAL, much less all Almighty God.

* NOTE "In The name of the law" does not mean that "the law" is a person, with a '
name such as Bill or Jane

Where to find your explanation in the Bible?
The definite article (the) is used before a noun to indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the reader, the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit mentioned in Mat 28:19 in the singular word "name". Grammatical exegesis as they are one in singular "name".
And if they are not equal they should be outside of that singular "name."

It's not a singular name. And someone could say something is to happen in the name of Tom, Dick and Harry, and it wouldn't mean that they are the same person OR equal in any way. I like JehovahsWitness's comment on this. "In the name of the law and God above" doesn't mean that the law has a name but is an entity to be reckoned with, and it certainly isn't equal to God above.

[JehovahsWitness]

...they are one in singular "name".
And if they are not equal they should be outside of that singular "name."

The scripture cannot mean the three mentioned are all called "Tom" (for example) because the bible is clear that the Father has one name and the Son another (different) name. As for the holy spirit, it is never spoken of in scripture as havjng a name, so how can someone be baptised a literal "name" nobody on earth has ever heard of.

The expression... "the name of" in this context means "in the authority of..." and the Father and son do not have equal authority because Jesus admitted his authorith came from the Father.

[Capbook]

... a definite article (name in singular) placed before Father, Son and HS. That I understand as one God in three persons.

That's nonsense. The expression "in the name of..." means "under the authority of"/ representing. This can refer to an individual (In the name of Jesus) , an institution or an entity (in the name of the law*).

Listing w(as in the case of Mat 2i) two individuals and an entity does not render them all EQUAL, much less all Almighty God.

* NOTE "In The name of the law" does not mean that "the law" is a person, with a '
name such as Bill or Jane

Where to find your explanation in the Bible?
The definite article (the) is used before a noun to indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the reader, the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit mentioned in Mat 28:19 in the singular word "name". Grammatical exegesis as they are one in singular "name".
And if they are not equal they should be outside of that singular "name."

It's not a singular name. And someone could say something is to happen in the name of Tom, Dick and Harry, and it wouldn't mean that they are the same person OR equal in any way. I like JehovahsWitness's comment on this. "In the name of the law and God above" doesn't mean that the law has a name but is an entity to be reckoned with, and it certainly isn't equal to God above.

I quote Bible verse, hope you do likewise on grammatical exegesis.

[onewithhim]

... a definite article (name in singular) placed before Father, Son and HS. That I understand as one God in three persons.

That's nonsense. The expression "in the name of..." means "under the authority of"/ representing. This can refer to an individual (In the name of Jesus) , an institution or an entity (in the name of the law*).

Listing w(as in the case of Mat 2i) two individuals and an entity does not render them all EQUAL, much less all Almighty God.

* NOTE "In The name of the law" does not mean that "the law" is a person, with a '
name such as Bill or Jane

Where to find your explanation in the Bible?
The definite article (the) is used before a noun to indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the reader, the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit mentioned in Mat 28:19 in the singular word "name". Grammatical exegesis as they are one in singular "name".
And if they are not equal they should be outside of that singular "name."

It's not a singular name. And someone could say something is to happen in the name of Tom, Dick and Harry, and it wouldn't mean that they are the same person OR equal in any way. I like JehovahsWitness's comment on this. "In the name of the law and God above" doesn't mean that the law has a name but is an entity to be reckoned with, and it certainly isn't equal to God above.

I quote Bible verse, hope you do likewise on grammatical exegesis.

Just what do you mean? We JWs have quoted MUCH Bible scripture. In just about everything we post. What is your point?

[myth-one.com]

"Correct view" you say. Clear this up for me. You mean one must believe in the basic belief of the trinity to be saved right?

No, I’m saying the complete opposite. I’m explicitly saying one doesn’t have to have the correct/true view of God’s nature (trinitarian or not) to be saved. I’m saying one can be wrong about the trinity and still be saved.

Is this true? One doesn't have to believe in the trinity to be saved?

It's true.

. . . Sirs, what must I do to be saved? And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, . . . (Acts 16:30-31)

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (John 3:16)

[MissKate13]

"Correct view" you say. Clear this up for me. You mean one must believe in the basic belief of the trinity to be saved right?

No, I’m saying the complete opposite. I’m explicitly saying one doesn’t have to have the correct/true view of God’s nature (trinitarian or not) to be saved. I’m saying one can be wrong about the trinity and still be saved.

Is this true? One doesn't have to believe in the trinity to be saved?

In John 8:24, Jesus says, “Unless you believe that I am, you will die in your sins .”

Translators have ADDED the word HE. There is no HE in the original language. “Unless you believe that I AM, you will die in your sins.

Jesus refers to himself as I AM in John 8:58. “Before Abraham was, I AM.

So in answer to your question, yes, one must believe Jesus is who he said he was to be saved. He is God!

Isa 44:6 “Thus says the Lord, the King of Israel,
And his Redeemer, the Lord of hosts:
‘I am the First and I am the Last;
Besides Me there is no God.”

Rev22:12-13 “And behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to give to every one according to his work. 13 I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last.”

[Capbook]

... a definite article (name in singular) placed before Father, Son and HS. That I understand as one God in three persons.

That's nonsense. The expression "in the name of..." means "under the authority of"/ representing. This can refer to an individual (In the name of Jesus) , an institution or an entity (in the name of the law*).

Listing w(as in the case of Mat 2i) two individuals and an entity does not render them all EQUAL, much less all Almighty God.

* NOTE "In The name of the law" does not mean that "the law" is a person, with a '
name such as Bill or Jane

Where to find your explanation in the Bible?
The definite article (the) is used before a noun to indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the reader, the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit mentioned in Mat 28:19 in the singular word "name". Grammatical exegesis as they are one in singular "name".
And if they are not equal they should be outside of that singular "name."

It's not a singular name. And someone could say something is to happen in the name of Tom, Dick and Harry, and it wouldn't mean that they are the same person OR equal in any way. I like JehovahsWitness's comment on this. "In the name of the law and God above" doesn't mean that the law has a name but is an entity to be reckoned with, and it certainly isn't equal to God above.

I quote Bible verse, hope you do likewise on grammatical exegesis.

Just what do you mean? We JWs have quoted MUCH Bible scripture. In just about everything we post. What is your point?

You mentioned Tom, Dick and Harry.
I mean any argument by verse that is similar to Mat 28:19 with different application.

[onewithhim]

... a definite article (name in singular) placed before Father, Son and HS. That I understand as one God in three persons.

That's nonsense. The expression "in the name of..." means "under the authority of"/ representing. This can refer to an individual (In the name of Jesus) , an institution or an entity (in the name of the law*).

Listing w(as in the case of Mat 2i) two individuals and an entity does not render them all EQUAL, much less all Almighty God.

* NOTE "In The name of the law" does not mean that "the law" is a person, with a '
name such as Bill or Jane

Where to find your explanation in the Bible?
The definite article (the) is used before a noun to indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the reader, the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit mentioned in Mat 28:19 in the singular word "name". Grammatical exegesis as they are one in singular "name".
And if they are not equal they should be outside of that singular "name."

It's not a singular name. And someone could say something is to happen in the name of Tom, Dick and Harry, and it wouldn't mean that they are the same person OR equal in any way. I like JehovahsWitness's comment on this. "In the name of the law and God above" doesn't mean that the law has a name but is an entity to be reckoned with, and it certainly isn't equal to God above.

I quote Bible verse, hope you do likewise on grammatical exegesis.

Just what do you mean? We JWs have quoted MUCH Bible scripture. In just about everything we post. What is your point?

You mentioned Tom, Dick and Harry.
I mean any argument by verse that is similar to Mat 28:19 with different application.

I still don't understand what you are talking about. Can you be more succinct?