No man has seen God at any time

[Stewardofthemystery]

It is written in John 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”

And Jesus said in John 14:6-7
King James Version
6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.”

So if no man has seen God at any time, how do we reconcile what seems to be a contradiction? When you understand the identity of the Son of God being the very Word of God, then you will understand there is no contradiction.

It is the Word OF God that was made flesh in the man Jesus. And it is BY God’s Word and words that we get to know and see what God the Father is really like, His likes and dislikes. It is by God’s Word and words we get to see and know the will of God the Father.

In this way, by looking at the words and actions of Jesus Christ we get to see and know what The invisible God is really like.

We don’t see the outward image of God in Christ, but rather we see the inward image of God in Jesus Christ, as God was in Christ.

Colossians 1:15
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

When you understand this mystery then there is a harmony to the text without contradiction.

Peace and God bless

[Capbook]

The passage mentions Jesus but he is NOT being refered to when it speaks about the True God. That expression is is always a reference to Jehovah (YHWH) see John 17:3.

We are in union with the one who is true, his Son Jesus the Messiah. It seems clear to me, it refer to Jesus.

I dont care what it seems to you, you are not God. Jesus referred to his FATHER as The True God, that is What is clear enough. I have provided the bible passage which interprété this verese for us.

Yes, we are both man, but the verse said so. And I also have posted that verse with GOD's WORD translation, with reading comprehension the verse is clear.

[JehovahsWitness]

Yes, we are both man, but the verse said so.

Jesus said Jehovah the Father is the ONLY True God and that is the and of the matter. If you let John 17:3 interpret this passage , you would know who is being spoken of when it speaks about the True God.


JW

[onewithhim]

Yes I do.

Good, but I didn't see you using some.

My index is in the footnote, you can easily find examples of my using a wide variety of commentaries.

Good, we can compare then.

I have used commentaries. Did you respond to them? I don't recall that you did.

Sorry, I forgot where to find them.
We also can compare then.

Well, when I do reference commentaries, why don't you respond right away? I always respond to your posts. Now, about the statement in the OP: "No man has seen God at any time." That cancels out Jesus as being God. Men have seen him. No one has literally seen the true God, YHWH. Jesus is not God.

Sorry if I was able to respond to you right away. I maybe missed some of you post.
Jesus is in human form on earth that's why men sees Him.
And Jesus is God, even called real God.

1Jn 5:20 We know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding so that we know the real God. We are in the one who is real, his Son Jesus Christ. This Jesus Christ is the real God and eternal life. (GOD's WORD Translation)

Men cannot see God. Therefore Jesus could not be God. He is NOT called "the real God" in most versions of the Bible (besides your "God's Word Translation). The thought is spurious. The verse actually refers to the Father who is God. Notice that Jesus is the Son of the true one.

The phrase, "This is true God" apostle John did refer to the Lord Jesus Christ. In human form man can see Jesus, and even the Father called Him God.

This is the true God - o There has been much difference of opinion in regard to this important passage; whether it refers to the Lord Jesus Christ, the immediate antecedent, or to a more remote antecedent - referring to God, as such. The question is of importance in its bearing on the doctrine of the divinity of the Saviour; for if it refers to him, it furnishes an unequivocal declaration that he is divine. The question is, whether John “meant” that it should be referred to him? Without going into an extended examination of the passage, the following considerations seem to me to make it morally certain that by the phrase “this is the true God,” etc., he did refer to the Lord Jesus Christ. (Barne's)

How can John 17:3 refer to Jesus being the only true God when Jesus is praying to his Father and calls HIM "the only true God"? It's not difficult to see who is the only true God, and Jesus doesn't say that it is himself.

(And the Father did not call Jesus God anywhere.)

[Capbook]

Yes, we are both man, but the verse said so.

Jesus said Jehovah the Father is the ONLY True God and that is the and of the matter. If you let John 17:3 interpret this passage , you would know who is being spoken of when it speaks about the True God.


JW

The verse does not end in period but of comma and followed by "and Jesus Christ".
Also the verse does not say that Jesus is not God.

[JehovahsWitness]

Yes, we are both man, but the verse said so.

Jesus said Jehovah the Father is the ONLY True God and that is the and of the matter. If you let John 17:3 interpret this passage , you would know who is being spoken of when it speaks about the True God.


JW

The verse does not end in period but of comma and followed by "and Jesus Christ".
Also the verse does not say that Jesus is not God.

Greek language doesn't have commas.

Also the verse does not say that Jesus is not God.

It does not say that Jesus is not Satan either. So?

[Capbook]

Yes, we are both man, but the verse said so.

Jesus said Jehovah the Father is the ONLY True God and that is the and of the matter. If you let John 17:3 interpret this passage , you would know who is being spoken of when it speaks about the True God.


JW

The verse does not end in period but of comma and followed by "and Jesus Christ".
Also the verse does not say that Jesus is not God.

Greek language doesn't have commas.

Also the verse does not say that Jesus is not God.

It does not say that Jesus is not Satan either. So?

But there's a Greek of "and".

G2532 (Thayer) kai
Thayer Definition:
1) and, also, even, indeed, but

So, the verse cannot be a proof that Jesus is not God.

[onewithhim]

Yes, we are both man, but the verse said so.

Jesus said Jehovah the Father is the ONLY True God and that is the and of the matter. If you let John 17:3 interpret this passage , you would know who is being spoken of when it speaks about the True God.


JW

The verse does not end in period but of comma and followed by "and Jesus Christ".
Also the verse does not say that Jesus is not God.

Greek language doesn't have commas.

Also the verse does not say that Jesus is not God.

It does not say that Jesus is not Satan either. So?

But there's a Greek of "and".

G2532 (Thayer) kai
Thayer Definition:
1) and, also, even, indeed, but

So, the verse cannot be a proof that Jesus is not God.

It simply brings out that Jesus was sent by God, not that he was God. Jesus' own words say that the Father ALONE is God.

[Capbook]

Yes, we are both man, but the verse said so.

Jesus said Jehovah the Father is the ONLY True God and that is the and of the matter. If you let John 17:3 interpret this passage , you would know who is being spoken of when it speaks about the True God.


JW

The verse does not end in period but of comma and followed by "and Jesus Christ".
Also the verse does not say that Jesus is not God.

Greek language doesn't have commas.

Also the verse does not say that Jesus is not God.

It does not say that Jesus is not Satan either. So?

But there's a Greek of "and".

G2532 (Thayer) kai
Thayer Definition:
1) and, also, even, indeed, but

So, the verse cannot be a proof that Jesus is not God.

It simply brings out that Jesus was sent by God, not that he was God. Jesus' own words say that the Father ALONE is God.

Jesus was sent to save the world, but before He was sent He had the glory with the Father.
And why the Father addressed Jesus as God in Heb 1:8,9? And in Psa 45:6 the "God" there was referred to the Jewish Messiah by the OT God's people.

John 17:5
5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
KJV

[JehovahsWitness]

But there's a Greek of "and".

So? If I say there is an apple AND an orange on the table, does that prove the apple is the orange?

[Capbook]

But there's a Greek of "and".

So? If I say there is an apple AND an orange on the table, does that prove the apple is the orange?

It proves that there two on the table, apple and orange.
And Jesus Christ then.