Jesus is God - Every knee shall bow

[Wootah]

Isaiah 45
22 “Turn to me and be saved,
all you ends of the earth;
for I am God, and there is no other.
23 By myself I have sworn,
my mouth has uttered in all integrity
a word that will not be revoked:
Before me every knee will bow;
by me every tongue will swear.
24 They will say of me, ‘In the Lord alone
are deliverance and strength.’”
All who have raged against him
will come to him and be put to shame.
25 But all the descendants of Israel
will find deliverance in the Lord
and will make their boast in him.


Philippians 2:10-11
English Standard Version
10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Is every knee meant to bow to God or to Jesus or is this evidence Jesus is God?

[APAK]

[Replying to APAK in post #12]

What is progressive revelation? Those who truly grasp Jehovah’s plan of salvation, will understand that the various aspects of his will and his overall plan for us are revealed in portions, and over time. Let’s call it, “God’s order of things, or his timeline for things.”

Certain truths contained throughout the Bible were revealed slowly from year to year, or from generation to generation. With that said, let's examine the following verses, no opinions, speculation, or adding to, or diminishing of the truth.

Isaiah was written between 740 and 699 B.C. The LORD is speaking to the people of Israel.

Isaiah 45:23, “I (Jehovah) have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, that unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.”

Seven hundred years later, between 56 and 58 A.D., the book of Romans was written.
Romans 14:11, “For it is written, as I live, said the LORD (kurios = God), every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess to God.” Sequel follows in Philippians.

Philippians was written in 60 A.D. Philippians 2:11, “That every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord (kurios, = God)”

Two years later, in 60 A.D., Philippians was written. These verses need to be closely examined so they can be fully understood. The book of Philippians was written in 60 A.D.
Philippians 2:10, “At the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things (those) in heaven, and things (those) in earth, and things (those) under the earth;”

Far beyond man, the angels of heaven, the devil, and fallen angelic host below the earth. Jesus is the Redeemer of the World, the only Savior, and for all time our Savior. Christ’s qualifications are extraordinary, his redeeming acts so stupendous, and the results glorious to the Father, the angels, and man, therefore impossible to conceive a higher name or title than that of Jesus, the Savior of the World.

The book of Ephesians was written between 60-61 A.D. Ephesians 1:20-21, makes the statement in Philippians 2:10-11, more emphatic: The man Christ Jesus, is exalted to the right hand of his Father. He is “Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come:”

How important was bowing down to Jehovah alone?

When a Jew would bend their knees, it was to worship Jehovah only. We see this in the following.

In the book of Esther, the Jews called Mordecai, a man under the law, refused to bow to Haman. Mordecai’s worship was meant for Jehovah alone. But rather than punish Mordecai, Haman sought something far more perfect, a total genocide, the entire destruction of all Jews throughout the Persian Empire. What was at first personal between the two became a decree of destruction. With the King Xerxes’s (Ahasuerus’s) approval, Haman set a date for annihilation, sealing the fate of the Jewish people with the casting of lots (in Hebrew, purim). Lots remain a Jewish Holy day celebrated to this day.

So the old Jew Mordecai was willing to sacrifice millions of his people, because he would not bend his knee to a man.

Why Did Mordecai Refuse to Bow?
Bowing was a gesture of respect throughout the ancient courts, but what Haman demanded crossed the line into idolatry, making Mordecai’s resistance a necessity.
Mordecai’s refusal to bow to Haman was rooted in Jewish law which forbids idolatry. The Torah forbids bowing to anything or anyone in a manner that suggests worship.
Exodus 20:5, “You shall not bow down to them nor serve them, for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God …”

Haman was making himself an object of worship, demanding divine worship. Bowing to Haman wasn’t mere etiquette for Mordecai, it was idol worship, something no Jew would do.

For a second example of Jews keeping the law, and not bowing to men or images, let’s take a look at Daniel’s three friends. King Nebuchadnezzar of Babylon built an image of gold, and without exceptions, everyone within hearing range of the music was to bow down and worship the king’s image. But three Jewish boys, Meshach, Shadrach, and Abednego refused. Nebuchadnezzar burned with rage and commanded that the three be thrown into a fiery furnace. We know the rest of the story. The King looked into the fire and saw four men walking in the fire, then said, “We cast three men bound into the midst of the Fire? I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and have not been hurt: the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.”

In Daniel 6, King Darius set up three presidents (overseers) of which Daniel was first, and that the princes of each province would give account to them. Because they were jealous of Daniel’s position, the Persians “consulted together to establish a royal statute that, whosoever shall ask a petition of any God or man for thirty days, except for the King, he shall be cast into the den of lions.”

In Daniel 6:10, Daniel bowed his knees three times that day, and prayed, and gave thanks before God, as he had been doing.” When the King was told, because of his decree, he had to have Daniel cast into the den of lions.

In all three of the above cases, Jews who love the LORD and kept his commandments were willing to give up their lives and the lives of their own countrymen to worship Jehovah only.

I do know of a 'Progressive revelation' as used by later NT scripture to validate and clarify much of the OT scripture, yes of course. It cannot be used as a deceptive cover however to support pet theories in an attempt to take advantage of unfortunate confusing nuances used in the NT that are different in the OT; like in the personal name of God as YHWH, to LORD in the OT, to the transliterated word 'kurios' (Lord) in the NT. These titles must be kept coherent and tracked, and never abused, as I see you have done here.

'Kurios' never equates to theos!!

The Greek word κύριος means "Master-Lord-Ruler". It has no connection to YHWH, which in Greek is translated (excluding pronouns and articles) using forms of the verb "εἰμὶ" (to be) . Also, the Greek cultural background, of its usage where the word "κύριος" (lord) is never used in place of the word "θεός" (god).

In the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, kurios is frequently used to translate the divine name YHWH (the Tetragrammaton) about 7000 times (LORD/Lord), and it appears in the New Testament about 740 times, often referring to Jesus(should have been just 'lord' to lessen the contrived confusion).

As already said, the term can denote a person of higher status, a master of property or slaves, or a title of address for someone with authority.

In the New Testament, kurios is used to address Jesus, and unfortunately by translators, God the Father (should have been LORD or YHWH), and anyone or anything that one serves.

1 Corinthians 12:3 (NASB)
3"Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking [a]by the Spirit of God says, “Jesus is accursed”; and no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except [c]by the Holy Spirit."

ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΡΙΝΘΙΟΥΣ Α΄ 12:3 1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)
3" διο γνωριζω υμιν οτι ουδεις εν πνευματι θεου λαλων λεγει αναθεμα ιησους και ουδεις δυναται ειπειν κυριος ιησους ει μη εν πνευματι αγιω."

Philippians 2:11 (NASB)
11" And that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."

ΠΡΟΣ ΦΙΛΙΠΠΗΣΙΟΥΣ 2:11 1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)

11 "και πασα γλωσσα εξομολογησηται οτι κυριος ιησους χριστος εις δοξαν θεου πατρος."

In both verses in the Koine language Phil.2:11 and 1 Cor.12:3 the word " ky(u)rios" is without the definite article, so the word ky(u)rios is a title that a person may be addressed. Therefore it is incorrect to translate "KY(U)RIOS IESOUS" into "YHWH Jesus" . It is absurd.

And as for Jesus being Lord(lord) and Saviour, scripture is very clear on it.

---------------------------

(1Co 8:6) yet to us there is only one God, the Father, of whom are all things and we are everything to Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, for the sake of whom are all things, and we exist for His sake.

Acts 2:36
“Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.”

Bible Lexicons defined "Lord" in Phil 2:11, in Greek "κύριος kurios";
By Thayer as "this title is given to: God, the Messiah". Yes "master" is also one of the definition.
By Mounce as "deity, the Lord Jesus Christ," etc. And "master" is also one of the defintion.
As Jesus being a Deity every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;

Php 2:11 and G2532  every G3956  tongue G1100  should acknowledge G1843  that G3754  [3 is Lord G2962  1Jesus G*  2Christ] G5547  to G1519  the glory G1391  of God G2316  the father. G3962  (ABP)

Php 2:11 και G2532 CONJ  πασα G3956 A-NSF  γλωσσα G1100 N-NSF  εξομολογησηται G1843 V-AMS-3S  οτι G3754 CONJ  κυριος G2962 N-NSM  ιησους G2424 N-NSM  χριστος G5547 N-NSM  εις G1519 PREP  δοξαν G1391 N-ASF  θεου G2316 N-GSM  πατρος G3962 N-GSM  (WESCOTT & HORT)

G2962 κύριος kurios
Thayer Definition:
1) he to whom a person or thing belongs, about which he has power of deciding; master, lord
1a) the possessor and disposer of a thing
1a1) the owner; one who has control of the person, the master
1a2) in the state: the sovereign, prince, chief, the Roman emperor
1b) is a title of honour expressive of respect and reverence, with which servants greet their master
1c) this title is given to: God, the Messiah

G2962 (Mounce)
κύριος kyrios
717x: a lord, master, Mat 12:8; an owner, possessor, Mat 20:8; a potentate, sovereign, Act 25:26; a power, deity, 1Co 8:5; the Lord, Jehovah, Mat 1:22; the Lord Jesus Christ, Mat 24:42; Mrk 16:19; Luk 10:1; Jhn 4:1; 1Co 4:5; freq.; κύριε, a term of respect of various force, Sir, Lord, Mat 13:27; Act 9:6, et al. freq.

Thank you Capbook! Apak, you're using the Greek Kurieo #2961 in Strongs concordance, or you're applying A or B. or C, below to Jesus. If you are, you're incorrect.

Its Kurios, Strongs #2962 that applies to the Lord Jesus Christ.

Capbook Let me add this from my 1836 Greek to English Lexicon.

Apak, you need to study the whole meaning of the word Lord, 2962 Kurios as it also concerns a variety of meanings. The one you suggest does not apply to Jesus Christ. what does is, D-1, D-2 and D-3, below. I laid it out for you, my advice is for you to study it.

Lord: Lords: 2962. Greek is, kurios. From might, power. Lord, master, owner.

a. Generally, the possessor, owner, master, as of property, Matthew 20:8, "The lord of the vineyard." Matthew 21:40. Galatians 4:1. Septuagint for Hebrew, "Owner," Exodus 21:28-29-34. So, the master or head of a house, Mark 13:35, "The master of the house." Matthew 15:27. Septuagint for Hebrew, "Man's house," Exodus 22:7. The master or possessor of persons, servants, slaves, Matthew 10:24, 24:45, "Whom his lord hath made ruler over his household," with verse 46-48-50. Acts 16:16-19. Romans 14:4. Ephesians 6:5-9. Colossians 3:22, 4:1. Septuagint for Hebrew, "Master," Judges 19:11. Exodus 39:7, "LORD." Genesis 24:9 sequel to follow, spoken of a husband, 1 Peter 3:6, "Sara obeyed Abraham, calling him lord." Septuagint for Hebrew, "Lord," Genesis 18:12. Sequel to follow genitive, of thing, and without the article lord, master of anything, as having absolute authority over it, as Matthew 9:38, "Lord of the harvest." Luke 10:2. Matthew 12:8, "Lord even of the sabbath day." Mark 2:28.

b. A supreme lord, sovereign, as the Roman emperor, Acts 25:36. Of the heathen gods, 1 Corinthians 8:5, "There be gods many, and lords many," as in probably gods superior and inferior, as demons.
c. As an honorary title of address, especially to superiors, as in English Master, Sir, Monsieur, Herm. Herr. As from a servant to his master Matthew 13:27, "Sir," Luke 13:8. A son to his father Matthew 21:30, "I go sir." To a teacher, master Matthew 8:25. Luke 9:54, "Lord," and so doubled, Matthew 7:2122, "Lord Lord." Luke 6:46. To a person of dignity and authority, Mark 7:28. John 4:11-15-19-49, "Sir, come down." To the Roman procurator, Matthew 27:63. Also in the respectful intercourse of common life, John 12:21, 20:15. Acts 16:30. Septuagint for Hebrew, Genesis 19:2, "My lords," 23:6-11-15.

d-1. Spoken of God and Christ. Of God as the Supreme Lord and sovereign of the universe, usually in Septuagint for Hebrew, Jehovah. With the article, "The Lord," Matthew 1:22, 5:33. Mark 5:19. Luke 1:6-28. Acts 7:33. Hebrews 8:2-10. James 4:15. Without the article, "Lord," Matthew 27:10. Mark 13:20. Luke 1:58. Acts 7:49. Romans 4:8. Hebrews 7:21. 1 Peter 1:25. Septuagint for Hebrew, "The LORD," Job 1:7. Genesis 11:5, 18:33. Hebrew, "LORD," Isaiah 49:14. 1 Kings 22:6. Hebrew, "Lord God," Psalms 73:28. 1 K.2:26. Hebrew, "God," 1 Samuel 23:7. Genesis 21:2-6, "God," Job 8:3. Numbers 23:8. Hebrew, "Almighty," Job 6:4-14, "The Almighty." With the adjuncts, without the article, as Matthew 4:7-10, "The Lord thy God." Matthew 22:37. Luke 1:16. Septuagint for Hebrew, "The LORD God," Isaiah 25:8. Ezekiel 4:14. Romans 9:29,"Lord of Sabbath." James 5:4. Septuagint for Hebrew, "LORD of Hosts," 1 Samuel 15:2. Isaiah 1:9. 2 Corinthians 6:18, "The Lord Almighty." and, "Lord God Almighty," Revelation 4:8, 11:17. Septuagint for Hebrew, 2 Samuel 7:8. Nahum 2:13. "Lord of lords," 1 Timothy 6:15, compare in, "Acts 17:24, "Lord of heaven and earth," and so applied also to God as the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, Matthew 11:25, "Father, Lord of heaven and earth." Luke 10:21. Compare Hebrew, "LORD God of heaven," Septuagint and Hebrew, "LORD his God," 2 Chronicles 36:23. Ezra 1:2. Nehemiah 1:5.

d-2. Of the Lord Jesus Christ. In reference to His abode on earth as a master and teacher, where it is, "Lord," Matthew 17:4, with Mark 9:5, "Master," and Luke 9:33. Comp. also John 13:13-14, "Master and Lord." So chiefly in the evangelists before the resurrection of Christ, and with the article, "The Lord," emphatic, Matthew 21:3, Matthew 28:6. Luke 7:13, 10:1. John 4:1, 20:2-13, "My Lord." Acts 9:5. 1 Corinthians 9:5. With adjuncts, as John 13:13, "Master and Lord," verse 14, "Lord and Master." Luke 24:3, Acts 1:21, 4:33.

d-3. As the Supreme Lord of the gospel dispensation, Head over all things to the church, Ephesians 1:22, "To be the head over all things to the church." Lord of all Romans 10:12, compare with Romans 9:5, "Christ came, who is over all." 1 Corinthians 15:25 sequel to follow, Hebrews 2:8, 8:1. Revelation 17:14. With the article, "The Lord," Mark 16:19-20. Acts 8:25, 19:10. 2 Corinthians 3:17. Ephesians 5:10. Colossians 3:23. 2 Thessalonians 3:1-5. 2 Timothy 4:8. James 5:7. So, common form genitive, of person, "The Lord said unto my Lord," etc. Matthew 22:44. Ephesians 6:9. Hebrews 7:14. Revelation 11:8. Without the article, Luke 1:76, "Of (the) Lord." 2 Corinthians 3:16-17. Colossians 4:1. 2 Peter 3:10. With adjuncts, as common form article, 1 Corinthians 5:5, 11:23. Romans 4:24. Hebrews 13:20, "Our Lord Jesus." Romans 16:18, "Our Lord Jesus Christ." Acts 16:31, "The Lord Jesus Christ." Romans 13:14. Romans 1:4. 1 Corinthians 1:9. 1 Corinthians 1:2-10, "Name of our Lord." Galatians 6:18. Ephesians 3:11, "In Christ." 1 Timothy 1:2. 2 Peter 1:2. So without the article as Romans 10:9, "(The) Lord Jesus." 1 Corinthians 12:3. Philippians 2:19. As in the Messiah, Luke 2:11, "Is Christ the Lord." Romans 1:7. 2 Corinthians 1:2. Philippians 1:2. 2 Corinthians 4:5, Galatians 1:3. Further in the phrase, "In the Lord," without the article, found only in the usage of Paul except once, Revelation 14:13, and to be explained from the fact, that believers are represented as one with Christ, as members of His body, Ephesians 5:30, "We are members of His body," compare with 1 Corinthians 12:27, "Ye are the body of Christ, and members," or of one spiritual body of which He is the Head, Colossians 3:19, compare with Ephesians 2:20, and are therefore in Christ. Hence, "In the Lord," is,

1. In the Lord, after verbs of rejoicing, trusting, etc. Philippians 3:1. 1 Corinthians 1:31. Philippians 2:19.
2. In, or by the Lord, by His authority, Ephesians 4:17. 1 Thessalonians 4:1.
3. In or through the Lord, through His aid and influence, by His help, 1 Corinthians 15:58. 2 Corinthians 2:12. Galatians 5:10. Ephesians 2:21. Colossians 4:17.
4. In the work of the Lord, in the gospel-work, Romans 16:8-13. 1 Corinthians 4:17, 9:2. Ephesians 6:21. 1 Thessalonians 5:12.
5. As marking condition, one in the Lord, as in united with Him, His follower, a Christian, Romans 16:11. Philippians 4:1. Philemon 16.
6. As denoting manner, in the Lord, as becomes those who are in the Lord, Christians, Romans 16:2-22. 1 Corinthians 7:39. Ephesians 6:1. Philippians 2:29. Colossians 3:18.

Are you kidding me, and I need to do what, study the whole meaning of the word Lord, 2962 Kurios as it also concerns a variety of meanings..."

Please explain yourself, else I'll need to find a special lexicon to decipher what you've just written.

And it's incredible and irrelevant to the subject at hand by adding in all this cut and paste text as if to bolster some type of argument I cannot see...who can?


I

[Capbook]

[Replying to APAK in post #12]

What is progressive revelation? Those who truly grasp Jehovah’s plan of salvation, will understand that the various aspects of his will and his overall plan for us are revealed in portions, and over time. Let’s call it, “God’s order of things, or his timeline for things.”

Certain truths contained throughout the Bible were revealed slowly from year to year, or from generation to generation. With that said, let's examine the following verses, no opinions, speculation, or adding to, or diminishing of the truth.

Isaiah was written between 740 and 699 B.C. The LORD is speaking to the people of Israel.

Isaiah 45:23, “I (Jehovah) have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, that unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.”

Seven hundred years later, between 56 and 58 A.D., the book of Romans was written.
Romans 14:11, “For it is written, as I live, said the LORD (kurios = God), every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess to God.” Sequel follows in Philippians.

Philippians was written in 60 A.D. Philippians 2:11, “That every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord (kurios, = God)”

Two years later, in 60 A.D., Philippians was written. These verses need to be closely examined so they can be fully understood. The book of Philippians was written in 60 A.D.
Philippians 2:10, “At the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things (those) in heaven, and things (those) in earth, and things (those) under the earth;”

Far beyond man, the angels of heaven, the devil, and fallen angelic host below the earth. Jesus is the Redeemer of the World, the only Savior, and for all time our Savior. Christ’s qualifications are extraordinary, his redeeming acts so stupendous, and the results glorious to the Father, the angels, and man, therefore impossible to conceive a higher name or title than that of Jesus, the Savior of the World.

The book of Ephesians was written between 60-61 A.D. Ephesians 1:20-21, makes the statement in Philippians 2:10-11, more emphatic: The man Christ Jesus, is exalted to the right hand of his Father. He is “Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come:”

How important was bowing down to Jehovah alone?

When a Jew would bend their knees, it was to worship Jehovah only. We see this in the following.

In the book of Esther, the Jews called Mordecai, a man under the law, refused to bow to Haman. Mordecai’s worship was meant for Jehovah alone. But rather than punish Mordecai, Haman sought something far more perfect, a total genocide, the entire destruction of all Jews throughout the Persian Empire. What was at first personal between the two became a decree of destruction. With the King Xerxes’s (Ahasuerus’s) approval, Haman set a date for annihilation, sealing the fate of the Jewish people with the casting of lots (in Hebrew, purim). Lots remain a Jewish Holy day celebrated to this day.

So the old Jew Mordecai was willing to sacrifice millions of his people, because he would not bend his knee to a man.

Why Did Mordecai Refuse to Bow?
Bowing was a gesture of respect throughout the ancient courts, but what Haman demanded crossed the line into idolatry, making Mordecai’s resistance a necessity.
Mordecai’s refusal to bow to Haman was rooted in Jewish law which forbids idolatry. The Torah forbids bowing to anything or anyone in a manner that suggests worship.
Exodus 20:5, “You shall not bow down to them nor serve them, for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God …”

Haman was making himself an object of worship, demanding divine worship. Bowing to Haman wasn’t mere etiquette for Mordecai, it was idol worship, something no Jew would do.

For a second example of Jews keeping the law, and not bowing to men or images, let’s take a look at Daniel’s three friends. King Nebuchadnezzar of Babylon built an image of gold, and without exceptions, everyone within hearing range of the music was to bow down and worship the king’s image. But three Jewish boys, Meshach, Shadrach, and Abednego refused. Nebuchadnezzar burned with rage and commanded that the three be thrown into a fiery furnace. We know the rest of the story. The King looked into the fire and saw four men walking in the fire, then said, “We cast three men bound into the midst of the Fire? I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and have not been hurt: the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.”

In Daniel 6, King Darius set up three presidents (overseers) of which Daniel was first, and that the princes of each province would give account to them. Because they were jealous of Daniel’s position, the Persians “consulted together to establish a royal statute that, whosoever shall ask a petition of any God or man for thirty days, except for the King, he shall be cast into the den of lions.”

In Daniel 6:10, Daniel bowed his knees three times that day, and prayed, and gave thanks before God, as he had been doing.” When the King was told, because of his decree, he had to have Daniel cast into the den of lions.

In all three of the above cases, Jews who love the LORD and kept his commandments were willing to give up their lives and the lives of their own countrymen to worship Jehovah only.

I do know of a 'Progressive revelation' as used by later NT scripture to validate and clarify much of the OT scripture, yes of course. It cannot be used as a deceptive cover however to support pet theories in an attempt to take advantage of unfortunate confusing nuances used in the NT that are different in the OT; like in the personal name of God as YHWH, to LORD in the OT, to the transliterated word 'kurios' (Lord) in the NT. These titles must be kept coherent and tracked, and never abused, as I see you have done here.

'Kurios' never equates to theos!!

The Greek word κύριος means "Master-Lord-Ruler". It has no connection to YHWH, which in Greek is translated (excluding pronouns and articles) using forms of the verb "εἰμὶ" (to be) . Also, the Greek cultural background, of its usage where the word "κύριος" (lord) is never used in place of the word "θεός" (god).

In the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, kurios is frequently used to translate the divine name YHWH (the Tetragrammaton) about 7000 times (LORD/Lord), and it appears in the New Testament about 740 times, often referring to Jesus(should have been just 'lord' to lessen the contrived confusion).

As already said, the term can denote a person of higher status, a master of property or slaves, or a title of address for someone with authority.

In the New Testament, kurios is used to address Jesus, and unfortunately by translators, God the Father (should have been LORD or YHWH), and anyone or anything that one serves.

1 Corinthians 12:3 (NASB)
3"Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking [a]by the Spirit of God says, “Jesus is accursed”; and no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except [c]by the Holy Spirit."

ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΡΙΝΘΙΟΥΣ Α΄ 12:3 1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)
3" διο γνωριζω υμιν οτι ουδεις εν πνευματι θεου λαλων λεγει αναθεμα ιησους και ουδεις δυναται ειπειν κυριος ιησους ει μη εν πνευματι αγιω."

Philippians 2:11 (NASB)
11" And that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."

ΠΡΟΣ ΦΙΛΙΠΠΗΣΙΟΥΣ 2:11 1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)

11 "και πασα γλωσσα εξομολογησηται οτι κυριος ιησους χριστος εις δοξαν θεου πατρος."

In both verses in the Koine language Phil.2:11 and 1 Cor.12:3 the word " ky(u)rios" is without the definite article, so the word ky(u)rios is a title that a person may be addressed. Therefore it is incorrect to translate "KY(U)RIOS IESOUS" into "YHWH Jesus" . It is absurd.

And as for Jesus being Lord(lord) and Saviour, scripture is very clear on it.

---------------------------

(1Co 8:6) yet to us there is only one God, the Father, of whom are all things and we are everything to Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, for the sake of whom are all things, and we exist for His sake.

Acts 2:36
“Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.”

Bible Lexicons defined "Lord" in Phil 2:11, in Greek "κύριος kurios";
By Thayer as "this title is given to: God, the Messiah". Yes "master" is also one of the definition.
By Mounce as "deity, the Lord Jesus Christ," etc. And "master" is also one of the defintion.
As Jesus being a Deity every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;

Php 2:11 and G2532  every G3956  tongue G1100  should acknowledge G1843  that G3754  [3 is Lord G2962  1Jesus G*  2Christ] G5547  to G1519  the glory G1391  of God G2316  the father. G3962  (ABP)

Php 2:11 και G2532 CONJ  πασα G3956 A-NSF  γλωσσα G1100 N-NSF  εξομολογησηται G1843 V-AMS-3S  οτι G3754 CONJ  κυριος G2962 N-NSM  ιησους G2424 N-NSM  χριστος G5547 N-NSM  εις G1519 PREP  δοξαν G1391 N-ASF  θεου G2316 N-GSM  πατρος G3962 N-GSM  (WESCOTT & HORT)

G2962 κύριος kurios
Thayer Definition:
1) he to whom a person or thing belongs, about which he has power of deciding; master, lord
1a) the possessor and disposer of a thing
1a1) the owner; one who has control of the person, the master
1a2) in the state: the sovereign, prince, chief, the Roman emperor
1b) is a title of honour expressive of respect and reverence, with which servants greet their master
1c) this title is given to: God, the Messiah

G2962 (Mounce)
κύριος kyrios
717x: a lord, master, Mat 12:8; an owner, possessor, Mat 20:8; a potentate, sovereign, Act 25:26; a power, deity, 1Co 8:5; the Lord, Jehovah, Mat 1:22; the Lord Jesus Christ, Mat 24:42; Mrk 16:19; Luk 10:1; Jhn 4:1; 1Co 4:5; freq.; κύριε, a term of respect of various force, Sir, Lord, Mat 13:27; Act 9:6, et al. freq.

I guess you did not read or understand a word I just wrote, that in the context of the New Testament writings, the terms "kurios" and "theos" are not synonymous. They have however and unfortunately been translated as the same, or being interchangeable, and only in a few area of the NT writings, thank God.

Yes, they are not synonymous, but as you say interchangeable per what quoted lexicon defined "kurios" I colored blue above, as "God, Messiah, the Lord Jesus, Deity etc.

While "kurios" can be applied to human authorities, "theos" is reserved for divine beings only. And of course without qualification, you have gone so far as to stick in for the name of Jesus, as being a deity in Phil 2:10 that has no place, and then you called it good. Well it's not good and fine. It stands out like a sore thumb.

Yes, kurios can be applied to human authorities also, but not solely, what Thayer and Mounce defined it above.

(Php 2:10) that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the earth,(NEV)

Yes, Strong#G2578, word "bow", in Greek "κάμπτω kamptō" one definition means "used of worshippers", as to say to worship Jesus.

κάμπτω kamptō
Thayer Definition:
1) to bend, bow, the knee (the knees)
1a) to one
1a1) in honour of one
1a2) in religious veneration
1b) used of worshippers
2) to bow one’s self

And lexicons and dictionaries are not substitutes for understanding scripture over context. Context is King! And also one cannot just pluck out only one verse and gain understanding of it context as you have done, and made a gross error in understanding it if that was your goal.

If you don't know the meaning of Bible words in Hebrew or in Greek at the time of its usage, you will be misled. That what Bible Lexicons are for.

Understanding context comprises of knowing the literal meaning, its historical setting its grammar and local and wider context if necessary. To then compare other surrounding scripture for understanding.

Context of many translations, specially paraphrase are confusing as they did not used the original Bible words of Hebrew or Greek and its meaning.

I see no work in your post to show any of this context work. You have just copied and pasted data from lexicons and dictionaries without any thought or idea of what you have in front of you. That does reflect on your simple and casual efforts to persuade anyone of your zeal for the word of God.

If you want context I can give you some;
do you agree with the context below?
Jhn 1:14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.
Jhn 1:15 (John bore witness about him, and cried out, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me ranks before me, because he was before me.’”)
Jhn 1:16 For from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace.
Jhn 1:17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.
Jhn 1:18 No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known.(ESV)
Rom 9:1 As a Christian, I’m telling you the truth. I’m not lying. The Holy Spirit, along with my own thoughts, supports me in this.
Rom 9:2 I have deep sorrow and endless heartache.
Rom 9:3 I wish I could be condemned and cut off from Christ for the sake of others who, like me, are Jewish by birth.
Rom 9:4 They are Israelites, God’s adopted children. They have the Lord’s glory, the pledges, Moses’ Teachings, the true worship, and the promises.
Rom 9:5 The Messiah is descended from their ancestors according to his human nature. The Messiah is God over everything, forever blessed. Amen.(Gods Word)

Context is crucial to biblical exegesis.

Good context above verses.

Now the context of Phil 2:10 is easy to gauge. Just read the verse before it to conclude who is Jesus.

(Php 2:9) Wherefore God highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name-
(Php 2:10) that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the earth,

Now who is deity again, God or his Son, Jesus?!

Verses in context I quote above said, Jesus is God. ESV is a word for word translation and God's Word a paraphrase.

[APAK]

[Replying to Capbook in post #22]

Now John 1:14 does not say Jesus is God. You will have to explain that one sometime, maybe later.

ESV did not translate the verse you have highlighted correctly.

ESV contradicted itself if the translator thought the Son was the same exact God as the Father.

For example:

No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known. (John 1:18, ESV)
And this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent. (John 17:3, ESV)

I quote a person and now I've lost his name..
"Their translation of the original Greek, in John 1:18, is 'gross', to put it bluntly. They not only remove 'begotten' when translating 'monogenes', which is best translated as 'only begotten', but they also upgrade the Son's divinity, so as to make him equal with the Almighty God. Consequently, we should not be reading:- ...the only God, who is at the Father's side, but should in fact be reading:- ...the only begotten (g)od, who is at the Father's side. We are talking about the 'uniqueness' of the Son's relationship to the Father after all."

If anything the ESV translator should have translated only to this extent, with the words like 'alone and unique god' for Jesus. That would be as far as I would go however before changing the meaning....

(Wallace, Jesus as Θεὸς, Textual Examination, John 1:18)

The following are the four textual variants (in transliterated Greek) of John 1:18b:

1. ho monogenês (The Only-begotten One)

2. ho monogenês huios (the only-begotten Son)

3. monogenês theos (only begotten, (g)God)

4. ho monogenês theos (the only begotten (g)God)

Notice that the Father, who is God is not begotten of course, although this god is begotten...

Just look at the previous verse to John 1:18, verse 17. Moses brought the Law of God, and he was not God, he was God's messenger. And Jesus the Christ brought the grace and truth of God, and he was not God, as he was also a messenger of God.
So how could both Moses and Jesus also be God?! If viewed in context correctly. The comparison of Moses' and Jesus' work is clear, as human beings. These two personalities were key to God's plan of salvation.

Of course Christ was greater than Moses, as Jesus spoke to his audiences, although no match at all for his Father, his God, I'm afraid. And you do know why Jesus was greater than Moses, right?

Having a poor version and translation of scripture of some verses does not give license to use it as fact and insert it, and promote your model of belief, I'm afraid.

//

I also have a copy of the God's Word translation and it is very biased towards those wanting Jesus to be God. As you have quoted Romans 9:5 from it.

I do not agree with it at all, and especially when over 99 percent of other translations do not agree with this modern very biased GW translation. It may be an easy to read version, although it got really lost in its translation.

[Wootah]

In simple terms.

As a person that worships God alone I don't bend my knee to anyone or anything that is not God.

If Jesus is not God I would not bend my knee to Jesus.

Are people arguing they would bend their knee to not God, like the entire rest of the world does?

[APAK]

[Replying to Wootah in post #24]

This area of scripture tends to be very misunderstood for some reason(s), and cannot be understood and read at face-value and simplistically.

(Php 2:7) but poured himself out, taking the mental attitude of a servant, and was the made just the same as all ordinary men.
(Php 2:8) And being perceived as a normal man, he humbled himself, becoming obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
(Php 2:9) Wherefore God highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name-
(Php 2:10) that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the earth,
(Php 2:11) and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

As God exalted his Son above any other creature, then God requires that all, not necessarily physically bow down as it's an idiom expression, although to deeply humble oneself as in kneeling in heart and mind, to God, not his Son. To God's glory, his Father, not his Son's glory. To confess that his Son, his anointed one, is the master and owner of them, of their very lives. If it was not for his Son, who died on the Cross, they would not be redeemed..to salvation, for many.

[Wootah]

[Replying to APAK in post #25]

Are you saying God spent all his time in the OT condemning the worship of 'not God' to then in the NT elevate 'not God' and tell us to worship 'not God'?

[APAK]

[Replying to APAK in post #25]

Are you saying God spent all his time in the OT condemning the worship of 'not God' to then in the NT elevate 'not God' and tell us to worship 'not God'?

The basis of your words are not Biblical, they are your own opinions and they are extreme. you cannot place scripture to support any of it.

You created the idea that God was condemning the worship of his Son during the OT times when his Son never existed yet. And when his Son went to the Cross he indeed elevated him above every name, as the redeemer of mankind. And no, God does not want us to worship his Son as equal or above himself. That's an incredible and even a blasphemous idea. The true King is the King and his proxy King or Prince will always be his proxy, in stature and honor and even 'worship.'

[onewithhim]

[Replying to APAK in post #12]

What is progressive revelation? Those who truly grasp Jehovah’s plan of salvation, will understand that the various aspects of his will and his overall plan for us are revealed in portions, and over time. Let’s call it, “God’s order of things, or his timeline for things.”

Certain truths contained throughout the Bible were revealed slowly from year to year, or from generation to generation. With that said, let's examine the following verses, no opinions, speculation, or adding to, or diminishing of the truth.

Isaiah was written between 740 and 699 B.C. The LORD is speaking to the people of Israel.

Isaiah 45:23, “I (Jehovah) have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, that unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.”

Seven hundred years later, between 56 and 58 A.D., the book of Romans was written.
Romans 14:11, “For it is written, as I live, said the LORD (kurios = God), every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess to God.” Sequel follows in Philippians.

Philippians was written in 60 A.D. Philippians 2:11, “That every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord (kurios, = God)”

Two years later, in 60 A.D., Philippians was written. These verses need to be closely examined so they can be fully understood. The book of Philippians was written in 60 A.D.
Philippians 2:10, “At the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things (those) in heaven, and things (those) in earth, and things (those) under the earth;”

Far beyond man, the angels of heaven, the devil, and fallen angelic host below the earth. Jesus is the Redeemer of the World, the only Savior, and for all time our Savior. Christ’s qualifications are extraordinary, his redeeming acts so stupendous, and the results glorious to the Father, the angels, and man, therefore impossible to conceive a higher name or title than that of Jesus, the Savior of the World.

The book of Ephesians was written between 60-61 A.D. Ephesians 1:20-21, makes the statement in Philippians 2:10-11, more emphatic: The man Christ Jesus, is exalted to the right hand of his Father. He is “Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come:”

How important was bowing down to Jehovah alone?

When a Jew would bend their knees, it was to worship Jehovah only. We see this in the following.

In the book of Esther, the Jews called Mordecai, a man under the law, refused to bow to Haman. Mordecai’s worship was meant for Jehovah alone. But rather than punish Mordecai, Haman sought something far more perfect, a total genocide, the entire destruction of all Jews throughout the Persian Empire. What was at first personal between the two became a decree of destruction. With the King Xerxes’s (Ahasuerus’s) approval, Haman set a date for annihilation, sealing the fate of the Jewish people with the casting of lots (in Hebrew, purim). Lots remain a Jewish Holy day celebrated to this day.

So the old Jew Mordecai was willing to sacrifice millions of his people, because he would not bend his knee to a man.

Why Did Mordecai Refuse to Bow?
Bowing was a gesture of respect throughout the ancient courts, but what Haman demanded crossed the line into idolatry, making Mordecai’s resistance a necessity.
Mordecai’s refusal to bow to Haman was rooted in Jewish law which forbids idolatry. The Torah forbids bowing to anything or anyone in a manner that suggests worship.
Exodus 20:5, “You shall not bow down to them nor serve them, for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God …”

Haman was making himself an object of worship, demanding divine worship. Bowing to Haman wasn’t mere etiquette for Mordecai, it was idol worship, something no Jew would do.

For a second example of Jews keeping the law, and not bowing to men or images, let’s take a look at Daniel’s three friends. King Nebuchadnezzar of Babylon built an image of gold, and without exceptions, everyone within hearing range of the music was to bow down and worship the king’s image. But three Jewish boys, Meshach, Shadrach, and Abednego refused. Nebuchadnezzar burned with rage and commanded that the three be thrown into a fiery furnace. We know the rest of the story. The King looked into the fire and saw four men walking in the fire, then said, “We cast three men bound into the midst of the Fire? I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and have not been hurt: the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.”

In Daniel 6, King Darius set up three presidents (overseers) of which Daniel was first, and that the princes of each province would give account to them. Because they were jealous of Daniel’s position, the Persians “consulted together to establish a royal statute that, whosoever shall ask a petition of any God or man for thirty days, except for the King, he shall be cast into the den of lions.”

In Daniel 6:10, Daniel bowed his knees three times that day, and prayed, and gave thanks before God, as he had been doing.” When the King was told, because of his decree, he had to have Daniel cast into the den of lions.

In all three of the above cases, Jews who love the LORD and kept his commandments were willing to give up their lives and the lives of their own countrymen to worship Jehovah only.

I do know of a 'Progressive revelation' as used by later NT scripture to validate and clarify much of the OT scripture, yes of course. It cannot be used as a deceptive cover however to support pet theories in an attempt to take advantage of unfortunate confusing nuances used in the NT that are different in the OT; like in the personal name of God as YHWH, to LORD in the OT, to the transliterated word 'kurios' (Lord) in the NT. These titles must be kept coherent and tracked, and never abused, as I see you have done here.

'Kurios' never equates to theos!!

The Greek word κύριος means "Master-Lord-Ruler". It has no connection to YHWH, which in Greek is translated (excluding pronouns and articles) using forms of the verb "εἰμὶ" (to be) . Also, the Greek cultural background, of its usage where the word "κύριος" (lord) is never used in place of the word "θεός" (god).

In the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, kurios is frequently used to translate the divine name YHWH (the Tetragrammaton) about 7000 times (LORD/Lord), and it appears in the New Testament about 740 times, often referring to Jesus(should have been just 'lord' to lessen the contrived confusion).

As already said, the term can denote a person of higher status, a master of property or slaves, or a title of address for someone with authority.

In the New Testament, kurios is used to address Jesus, and unfortunately by translators, God the Father (should have been LORD or YHWH), and anyone or anything that one serves.

1 Corinthians 12:3 (NASB)
3"Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking [a]by the Spirit of God says, “Jesus is accursed”; and no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except [c]by the Holy Spirit."

ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΡΙΝΘΙΟΥΣ Α΄ 12:3 1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)
3" διο γνωριζω υμιν οτι ουδεις εν πνευματι θεου λαλων λεγει αναθεμα ιησους και ουδεις δυναται ειπειν κυριος ιησους ει μη εν πνευματι αγιω."

Philippians 2:11 (NASB)
11" And that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."

ΠΡΟΣ ΦΙΛΙΠΠΗΣΙΟΥΣ 2:11 1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)

11 "και πασα γλωσσα εξομολογησηται οτι κυριος ιησους χριστος εις δοξαν θεου πατρος."

In both verses in the Koine language Phil.2:11 and 1 Cor.12:3 the word " ky(u)rios" is without the definite article, so the word ky(u)rios is a title that a person may be addressed. Therefore it is incorrect to translate "KY(U)RIOS IESOUS" into "YHWH Jesus" . It is absurd.

And as for Jesus being Lord(lord) and Saviour, scripture is very clear on it.

---------------------------

(1Co 8:6) yet to us there is only one God, the Father, of whom are all things and we are everything to Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, for the sake of whom are all things, and we exist for His sake.

Acts 2:36
“Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.”

Bible Lexicons defined "Lord" in Phil 2:11, in Greek "κύριος kurios";
By Thayer as "this title is given to: God, the Messiah". Yes "master" is also one of the definition.
By Mounce as "deity, the Lord Jesus Christ," etc. And "master" is also one of the defintion.
As Jesus being a Deity every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;

Php 2:11 and G2532  every G3956  tongue G1100  should acknowledge G1843  that G3754  [3 is Lord G2962  1Jesus G*  2Christ] G5547  to G1519  the glory G1391  of God G2316  the father. G3962  (ABP)

Php 2:11 και G2532 CONJ  πασα G3956 A-NSF  γλωσσα G1100 N-NSF  εξομολογησηται G1843 V-AMS-3S  οτι G3754 CONJ  κυριος G2962 N-NSM  ιησους G2424 N-NSM  χριστος G5547 N-NSM  εις G1519 PREP  δοξαν G1391 N-ASF  θεου G2316 N-GSM  πατρος G3962 N-GSM  (WESCOTT & HORT)

G2962 κύριος kurios
Thayer Definition:
1) he to whom a person or thing belongs, about which he has power of deciding; master, lord
1a) the possessor and disposer of a thing
1a1) the owner; one who has control of the person, the master
1a2) in the state: the sovereign, prince, chief, the Roman emperor
1b) is a title of honour expressive of respect and reverence, with which servants greet their master
1c) this title is given to: God, the Messiah

G2962 (Mounce)
κύριος kyrios
717x: a lord, master, Mat 12:8; an owner, possessor, Mat 20:8; a potentate, sovereign, Act 25:26; a power, deity, 1Co 8:5; the Lord, Jehovah, Mat 1:22; the Lord Jesus Christ, Mat 24:42; Mrk 16:19; Luk 10:1; Jhn 4:1; 1Co 4:5; freq.; κύριε, a term of respect of various force, Sir, Lord, Mat 13:27; Act 9:6, et al. freq.

I guess you did not read or understand a word I just wrote, that in the context of the New Testament writings, the terms "kurios" and "theos" are not synonymous. They have however and unfortunately been translated as the same, or being interchangeable, and only in a few area of the NT writings, thank God.

Yes, they are not synonymous, but as you say interchangeable per what quoted lexicon defined "kurios" I colored blue above, as "God, Messiah, the Lord Jesus, Deity etc.

While "kurios" can be applied to human authorities, "theos" is reserved for divine beings only. And of course without qualification, you have gone so far as to stick in for the name of Jesus, as being a deity in Phil 2:10 that has no place, and then you called it good. Well it's not good and fine. It stands out like a sore thumb.

Yes, kurios can be applied to human authorities also, but not solely, what Thayer and Mounce defined it above.

(Php 2:10) that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the earth,(NEV)

Yes, Strong#G2578, word "bow", in Greek "κάμπτω kamptō" one definition means "used of worshippers", as to say to worship Jesus.

κάμπτω kamptō
Thayer Definition:
1) to bend, bow, the knee (the knees)
1a) to one
1a1) in honour of one
1a2) in religious veneration
1b) used of worshippers
2) to bow one’s self

And lexicons and dictionaries are not substitutes for understanding scripture over context. Context is King! And also one cannot just pluck out only one verse and gain understanding of it context as you have done, and made a gross error in understanding it if that was your goal.

If you don't know the meaning of Bible words in Hebrew or in Greek at the time of its usage, you will be misled. That what Bible Lexicons are for.

Understanding context comprises of knowing the literal meaning, its historical setting its grammar and local and wider context if necessary. To then compare other surrounding scripture for understanding.

Context of many translations, specially paraphrase are confusing as they did not used the original Bible words of Hebrew or Greek and its meaning.

I see no work in your post to show any of this context work. You have just copied and pasted data from lexicons and dictionaries without any thought or idea of what you have in front of you. That does reflect on your simple and casual efforts to persuade anyone of your zeal for the word of God.

If you want context I can give you some;
do you agree with the context below?
Jhn 1:14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.
Jhn 1:15 (John bore witness about him, and cried out, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me ranks before me, because he was before me.’”)
Jhn 1:16 For from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace.
Jhn 1:17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.
Jhn 1:18 No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known.(ESV)
Rom 9:1 As a Christian, I’m telling you the truth. I’m not lying. The Holy Spirit, along with my own thoughts, supports me in this.
Rom 9:2 I have deep sorrow and endless heartache.
Rom 9:3 I wish I could be condemned and cut off from Christ for the sake of others who, like me, are Jewish by birth.
Rom 9:4 They are Israelites, God’s adopted children. They have the Lord’s glory, the pledges, Moses’ Teachings, the true worship, and the promises.
Rom 9:5 The Messiah is descended from their ancestors according to his human nature. The Messiah is God over everything, forever blessed. Amen.(Gods Word)

Context is crucial to biblical exegesis.

Good context above verses.

Now the context of Phil 2:10 is easy to gauge. Just read the verse before it to conclude who is Jesus.

(Php 2:9) Wherefore God highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name-
(Php 2:10) that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the earth,

Now who is deity again, God or his Son, Jesus?!

God, of course. (He GAVE Jesus everything that Jesus has.)

[APAK]

[Replying to APAK in post #12]

What is progressive revelation? Those who truly grasp Jehovah’s plan of salvation, will understand that the various aspects of his will and his overall plan for us are revealed in portions, and over time. Let’s call it, “God’s order of things, or his timeline for things.”

Certain truths contained throughout the Bible were revealed slowly from year to year, or from generation to generation. With that said, let's examine the following verses, no opinions, speculation, or adding to, or diminishing of the truth.

Isaiah was written between 740 and 699 B.C. The LORD is speaking to the people of Israel.

Isaiah 45:23, “I (Jehovah) have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, that unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.”

Seven hundred years later, between 56 and 58 A.D., the book of Romans was written.
Romans 14:11, “For it is written, as I live, said the LORD (kurios = God), every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess to God.” Sequel follows in Philippians.

Philippians was written in 60 A.D. Philippians 2:11, “That every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord (kurios, = God)”

Two years later, in 60 A.D., Philippians was written. These verses need to be closely examined so they can be fully understood. The book of Philippians was written in 60 A.D.
Philippians 2:10, “At the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things (those) in heaven, and things (those) in earth, and things (those) under the earth;”

Far beyond man, the angels of heaven, the devil, and fallen angelic host below the earth. Jesus is the Redeemer of the World, the only Savior, and for all time our Savior. Christ’s qualifications are extraordinary, his redeeming acts so stupendous, and the results glorious to the Father, the angels, and man, therefore impossible to conceive a higher name or title than that of Jesus, the Savior of the World.

The book of Ephesians was written between 60-61 A.D. Ephesians 1:20-21, makes the statement in Philippians 2:10-11, more emphatic: The man Christ Jesus, is exalted to the right hand of his Father. He is “Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come:”

How important was bowing down to Jehovah alone?

When a Jew would bend their knees, it was to worship Jehovah only. We see this in the following.

In the book of Esther, the Jews called Mordecai, a man under the law, refused to bow to Haman. Mordecai’s worship was meant for Jehovah alone. But rather than punish Mordecai, Haman sought something far more perfect, a total genocide, the entire destruction of all Jews throughout the Persian Empire. What was at first personal between the two became a decree of destruction. With the King Xerxes’s (Ahasuerus’s) approval, Haman set a date for annihilation, sealing the fate of the Jewish people with the casting of lots (in Hebrew, purim). Lots remain a Jewish Holy day celebrated to this day.

So the old Jew Mordecai was willing to sacrifice millions of his people, because he would not bend his knee to a man.

Why Did Mordecai Refuse to Bow?
Bowing was a gesture of respect throughout the ancient courts, but what Haman demanded crossed the line into idolatry, making Mordecai’s resistance a necessity.
Mordecai’s refusal to bow to Haman was rooted in Jewish law which forbids idolatry. The Torah forbids bowing to anything or anyone in a manner that suggests worship.
Exodus 20:5, “You shall not bow down to them nor serve them, for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God …”

Haman was making himself an object of worship, demanding divine worship. Bowing to Haman wasn’t mere etiquette for Mordecai, it was idol worship, something no Jew would do.

For a second example of Jews keeping the law, and not bowing to men or images, let’s take a look at Daniel’s three friends. King Nebuchadnezzar of Babylon built an image of gold, and without exceptions, everyone within hearing range of the music was to bow down and worship the king’s image. But three Jewish boys, Meshach, Shadrach, and Abednego refused. Nebuchadnezzar burned with rage and commanded that the three be thrown into a fiery furnace. We know the rest of the story. The King looked into the fire and saw four men walking in the fire, then said, “We cast three men bound into the midst of the Fire? I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and have not been hurt: the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.”

In Daniel 6, King Darius set up three presidents (overseers) of which Daniel was first, and that the princes of each province would give account to them. Because they were jealous of Daniel’s position, the Persians “consulted together to establish a royal statute that, whosoever shall ask a petition of any God or man for thirty days, except for the King, he shall be cast into the den of lions.”

In Daniel 6:10, Daniel bowed his knees three times that day, and prayed, and gave thanks before God, as he had been doing.” When the King was told, because of his decree, he had to have Daniel cast into the den of lions.

In all three of the above cases, Jews who love the LORD and kept his commandments were willing to give up their lives and the lives of their own countrymen to worship Jehovah only.

I do know of a 'Progressive revelation' as used by later NT scripture to validate and clarify much of the OT scripture, yes of course. It cannot be used as a deceptive cover however to support pet theories in an attempt to take advantage of unfortunate confusing nuances used in the NT that are different in the OT; like in the personal name of God as YHWH, to LORD in the OT, to the transliterated word 'kurios' (Lord) in the NT. These titles must be kept coherent and tracked, and never abused, as I see you have done here.

'Kurios' never equates to theos!!

The Greek word κύριος means "Master-Lord-Ruler". It has no connection to YHWH, which in Greek is translated (excluding pronouns and articles) using forms of the verb "εἰμὶ" (to be) . Also, the Greek cultural background, of its usage where the word "κύριος" (lord) is never used in place of the word "θεός" (god).

In the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, kurios is frequently used to translate the divine name YHWH (the Tetragrammaton) about 7000 times (LORD/Lord), and it appears in the New Testament about 740 times, often referring to Jesus(should have been just 'lord' to lessen the contrived confusion).

As already said, the term can denote a person of higher status, a master of property or slaves, or a title of address for someone with authority.

In the New Testament, kurios is used to address Jesus, and unfortunately by translators, God the Father (should have been LORD or YHWH), and anyone or anything that one serves.

1 Corinthians 12:3 (NASB)
3"Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking [a]by the Spirit of God says, “Jesus is accursed”; and no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except [c]by the Holy Spirit."

ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΡΙΝΘΙΟΥΣ Α΄ 12:3 1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)
3" διο γνωριζω υμιν οτι ουδεις εν πνευματι θεου λαλων λεγει αναθεμα ιησους και ουδεις δυναται ειπειν κυριος ιησους ει μη εν πνευματι αγιω."

Philippians 2:11 (NASB)
11" And that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."

ΠΡΟΣ ΦΙΛΙΠΠΗΣΙΟΥΣ 2:11 1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)

11 "και πασα γλωσσα εξομολογησηται οτι κυριος ιησους χριστος εις δοξαν θεου πατρος."

In both verses in the Koine language Phil.2:11 and 1 Cor.12:3 the word " ky(u)rios" is without the definite article, so the word ky(u)rios is a title that a person may be addressed. Therefore it is incorrect to translate "KY(U)RIOS IESOUS" into "YHWH Jesus" . It is absurd.

And as for Jesus being Lord(lord) and Saviour, scripture is very clear on it.

---------------------------

(1Co 8:6) yet to us there is only one God, the Father, of whom are all things and we are everything to Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, for the sake of whom are all things, and we exist for His sake.

Acts 2:36
“Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.”

Bible Lexicons defined "Lord" in Phil 2:11, in Greek "κύριος kurios";
By Thayer as "this title is given to: God, the Messiah". Yes "master" is also one of the definition.
By Mounce as "deity, the Lord Jesus Christ," etc. And "master" is also one of the defintion.
As Jesus being a Deity every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;

Php 2:11 and G2532  every G3956  tongue G1100  should acknowledge G1843  that G3754  [3 is Lord G2962  1Jesus G*  2Christ] G5547  to G1519  the glory G1391  of God G2316  the father. G3962  (ABP)

Php 2:11 και G2532 CONJ  πασα G3956 A-NSF  γλωσσα G1100 N-NSF  εξομολογησηται G1843 V-AMS-3S  οτι G3754 CONJ  κυριος G2962 N-NSM  ιησους G2424 N-NSM  χριστος G5547 N-NSM  εις G1519 PREP  δοξαν G1391 N-ASF  θεου G2316 N-GSM  πατρος G3962 N-GSM  (WESCOTT & HORT)

G2962 κύριος kurios
Thayer Definition:
1) he to whom a person or thing belongs, about which he has power of deciding; master, lord
1a) the possessor and disposer of a thing
1a1) the owner; one who has control of the person, the master
1a2) in the state: the sovereign, prince, chief, the Roman emperor
1b) is a title of honour expressive of respect and reverence, with which servants greet their master
1c) this title is given to: God, the Messiah

G2962 (Mounce)
κύριος kyrios
717x: a lord, master, Mat 12:8; an owner, possessor, Mat 20:8; a potentate, sovereign, Act 25:26; a power, deity, 1Co 8:5; the Lord, Jehovah, Mat 1:22; the Lord Jesus Christ, Mat 24:42; Mrk 16:19; Luk 10:1; Jhn 4:1; 1Co 4:5; freq.; κύριε, a term of respect of various force, Sir, Lord, Mat 13:27; Act 9:6, et al. freq.

I guess you did not read or understand a word I just wrote, that in the context of the New Testament writings, the terms "kurios" and "theos" are not synonymous. They have however and unfortunately been translated as the same, or being interchangeable, and only in a few area of the NT writings, thank God.

Yes, they are not synonymous, but as you say interchangeable per what quoted lexicon defined "kurios" I colored blue above, as "God, Messiah, the Lord Jesus, Deity etc.

While "kurios" can be applied to human authorities, "theos" is reserved for divine beings only. And of course without qualification, you have gone so far as to stick in for the name of Jesus, as being a deity in Phil 2:10 that has no place, and then you called it good. Well it's not good and fine. It stands out like a sore thumb.

Yes, kurios can be applied to human authorities also, but not solely, what Thayer and Mounce defined it above.

(Php 2:10) that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the earth,(NEV)

Yes, Strong#G2578, word "bow", in Greek "κάμπτω kamptō" one definition means "used of worshippers", as to say to worship Jesus.

κάμπτω kamptō
Thayer Definition:
1) to bend, bow, the knee (the knees)
1a) to one
1a1) in honour of one
1a2) in religious veneration
1b) used of worshippers
2) to bow one’s self

And lexicons and dictionaries are not substitutes for understanding scripture over context. Context is King! And also one cannot just pluck out only one verse and gain understanding of it context as you have done, and made a gross error in understanding it if that was your goal.

If you don't know the meaning of Bible words in Hebrew or in Greek at the time of its usage, you will be misled. That what Bible Lexicons are for.

Understanding context comprises of knowing the literal meaning, its historical setting its grammar and local and wider context if necessary. To then compare other surrounding scripture for understanding.

Context of many translations, specially paraphrase are confusing as they did not used the original Bible words of Hebrew or Greek and its meaning.

I see no work in your post to show any of this context work. You have just copied and pasted data from lexicons and dictionaries without any thought or idea of what you have in front of you. That does reflect on your simple and casual efforts to persuade anyone of your zeal for the word of God.

If you want context I can give you some;
do you agree with the context below?
Jhn 1:14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.
Jhn 1:15 (John bore witness about him, and cried out, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me ranks before me, because he was before me.’”)
Jhn 1:16 For from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace.
Jhn 1:17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.
Jhn 1:18 No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known.(ESV)
Rom 9:1 As a Christian, I’m telling you the truth. I’m not lying. The Holy Spirit, along with my own thoughts, supports me in this.
Rom 9:2 I have deep sorrow and endless heartache.
Rom 9:3 I wish I could be condemned and cut off from Christ for the sake of others who, like me, are Jewish by birth.
Rom 9:4 They are Israelites, God’s adopted children. They have the Lord’s glory, the pledges, Moses’ Teachings, the true worship, and the promises.
Rom 9:5 The Messiah is descended from their ancestors according to his human nature. The Messiah is God over everything, forever blessed. Amen.(Gods Word)

Context is crucial to biblical exegesis.

Good context above verses.

Now the context of Phil 2:10 is easy to gauge. Just read the verse before it to conclude who is Jesus.

(Php 2:9) Wherefore God highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name-
(Php 2:10) that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the earth,

Now who is deity again, God or his Son, Jesus?!

God, of course. (He GAVE Jesus everything that Jesus has.)

Thank you for that, I've noticed in many of your posts you have the same or similar thoughts as I.

[Wootah]

[Replying to APAK in post #25]

Are you saying God spent all his time in the OT condemning the worship of 'not God' to then in the NT elevate 'not God' and tell us to worship 'not God'?

The basis of your words are not Biblical, they are your own opinions and they are extreme. you cannot place scripture to support any of it.

You created the idea that God was condemning the worship of his Son during the OT times when his Son never existed yet. And when his Son went to the Cross he indeed elevated him above every name, as the redeemer of mankind. And no, God does not want us to worship his Son as equal or above himself. That's an incredible and even a blasphemous idea. The true King is the King and his proxy King or Prince will always be his proxy, in stature and honor and even 'worship.'

The OT predicts the son, the Messiah in every theme. I have many posts on here backing the view Jesus is God.

Imagine you had a book about Harry Potter (YHWH) and someone came along and wrote a new book about someone else and told you now everything to do with Harry Potter has to do with the new character. That is what you are doing. Page after page of the NT is about Jesus, not God for you.

You shouldn't allow yourself to mentally wiggle out of this. It is blasphemy to insert not God books and call them the New Testament and value them if Jesus is not God. Read the Old Testament and the lengths God went to to teach Isreal there is is only one God. I mean be fair to the Pharisees. They recognised the same thing I am saying and killed Jesus for it. Jews today recognise what I am saying and reject the New Testament.

But you seem to love having books added to the Bible that are about not God.