God's Knowledge of Time and Free Will

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PeaceWolf
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God's Knowledge of Time and Free Will

Post #1

Post by PeaceWolf »

I'm not entirely sure if this has been brought up before, so if it has, I'd appreciate a link to the original thread. Also, moderators, move this topic as you please if you feel it belongs elsewhere. :)

Christianity teaches that God gave humans free will, the ability to choose between good and evil, but it also teaches that God is all-knowing -- he knows the past, the present, and the future. If this is true, God would know the sins we will commit and how our minds will work. Thus, the course of time must be set and fate must be inevitable, or else there would be no "future" for God to know.

Before you theists pop in and say "Our actions decide our future!", consider this: there is only one true future, one true way time will work out. For example, if you planned to go rock-climbing on Saturday, and then you somehow had a vision you would fall off the rock-climbing wall and break your arm, so you did not go rock-climbing, truly, you did not change the future: the true future was that you would have this vision and not go rock-climbing. This was bound to happen. It would have happened no other way.

Question for debate: Could free will and God's omniscience be contradictory? Could we be held responsible for the way our lives were determined on the path of time? If we are bound to sin somehow in the future, are we responsible for these sins, or are we following the path of time?

This article did well in explaining this theory:
http://everything2.com/title/Beyond%252 ... %2520Exist

cnorman18

Re: God's Knowledge of Time and Free Will

Post #11

Post by cnorman18 »

McCulloch wrote:At the risk of making more heads hurt...
cnorman18 wrote:I don't want to misrepresent Cantor's work on transfinite numbers. He never said that. Let me back up a step and give a brief explanation. I'm sure there are enough math heads on the forum to correct me, but this is the stick-man version:
Close enough for the analogy. but
cnorman18 wrote:But Cantor showed - in fact, proved - that if that line (with an infinite number of points) is part of an infinite plane, then the number of points on the plane is absolutely greater than the number of points on the line - and by a factor of - yes - infinity.
Actually, he showed paradoxically, that there are exactly the same number of points on a line as on a plane. And that there is a one-to-one correspondence between the integers ( ... -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 ... ) and rational numbers ( all numbers that can be expressed as a ratio of two integers, 1/2, 1/3, 22/7 etc. ) This particular infinity, Cantor called Aleph-null.
I stand corrected; I forgot that his first term was "aleph-null."

So what is "Aleph-one"? I was certain that it came from the plane.

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McCulloch
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Re: God's Knowledge of Time and Free Will

Post #12

Post by McCulloch »

cnorman18 wrote:I stand corrected; I forgot that his first term was "aleph-null."

So what is "Aleph-one"? I was certain that it came from the plane.
That would make intuitive sense. That is what was so startling about Cantor's conclusions. Look at the interval between 0 and 1. There are an infinite number of rational numbers between 0 and 1, yet there is a one-to-one correspondence between the rational numbers between 0 and 1 and the integers. Both are aleph-null. There are the same number of fractions between 0 and 1 as there are integers. But there are that many fractions between 1 and 2. So, intuitively, you would think that the complete set of rational numbers would be an order of magnitude greater. After all there are aleph-null gaps between the integers and there are aleph-null rational numbers in each gap. But Cantor showed that there are the same number of rational numbers as there are integers. Or to put it more bluntly
ℵ₀×ℵ₀=ℵ₀
Clearly, infinities do not work like number sets.
The next level up in infinities is ℵ� (aleph-one). This is how many real numbers there are. Real numbers can be thought of as all of the rational numbers plus all of the irrational numbers. Irrational numbers are numbers like pi and e which cannot be expressed as a fraction. It turns out that there are a heck of a lot more irrational numbers than rational ones¹. From one point-of-view it looks like this. If you take any pair of rational numbers (fractions), no matter how close together they are there are infinitely more irrational numbers between them than there are integers. Thinking about that too long will make your brain hurt.

Cantor thought that ℵ� is 2 to the power of ℵ₀, but he couldn't prove it. Kurt Gödel proved that it could not be disproven in 1940 (I don't know how and I am not sure that I want to) and in 1963, Paul Cohen proved that it could not be proven.

There is a somewhat readable analogy in Cantor's hotel.

____________________________________
¹ I'd like to make a joke about them being like people, but the term rational in mathematics is derived from ratio not reason.
Examine everything carefully; hold fast to that which is good.
First Epistle to the Church of the Thessalonians
The truth will make you free.
Gospel of John

cnorman18

Re: God's Knowledge of Time and Free Will

Post #13

Post by cnorman18 »

McCulloch wrote:
cnorman18 wrote:I stand corrected; I forgot that his first term was "aleph-null."

So what is "Aleph-one"? I was certain that it came from the plane.
That would make intuitive sense. That is what was so startling about Cantor's conclusions. Look at the interval between 0 and 1. There are an infinite number of rational numbers between 0 and 1, yet there is a one-to-one correspondence between the rational numbers between 0 and 1 and the integers. Both are aleph-null. There are the same number of fractions between 0 and 1 as there are integers. But there are that many fractions between 1 and 2. So, intuitively, you would think that the complete set of rational numbers would be an order of magnitude greater. After all there are aleph-null gaps between the integers and there are aleph-null rational numbers in each gap. But Cantor showed that there are the same number of rational numbers as there are integers. Or to put it more bluntly
ℵ₀×ℵ₀=ℵ₀
Clearly, infinities do not work like number sets.
The next level up in infinities is ℵ� (aleph-one). This is how many real numbers there are. Real numbers can be thought of as all of the rational numbers plus all of the irrational numbers. Irrational numbers are numbers like pi and e which cannot be expressed as a fraction. It turns out that there are a heck of a lot more irrational numbers than rational ones¹. From one point-of-view it looks like this. If you take any pair of rational numbers (fractions), no matter how close together they are there are infinitely more irrational numbers between them than there are integers. Thinking about that too long will make your brain hurt.

Cantor thought that ℵ� is 2 to the power of ℵ₀, but he couldn't prove it. Kurt Gödel proved that it could not be disproven in 1940 (I don't know how and I am not sure that I want to) and in 1963, Paul Cohen proved that it could not be proven.

There is a somewhat readable analogy in Cantor's hotel.

____________________________________
¹ I'd like to make a joke about them being like people, but the term rational in mathematics is derived from ratio not reason.
Thanks: I actually understood all of that, and remembered learning it long ago.

And it makes sense. Sorry about garbling the analogies (and I quite agree about the relative numbers of irrational and rational people. My dad used to make a similar observation, that there were more horses' butts in the world than there were horses).

Kurt Goedel's work might be important here, too; if even mathematics cannot be both complete and self-consistent, what chance is there for any academic field, let alone theology? Perhaps real paradox is an essential part of objective reality.

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Post #14

Post by catalyst »

PeaceWolf wrote:I'm not entirely sure if this has been brought up before, so if it has, I'd appreciate a link to the original thread. Also, moderators, move this topic as you please if you feel it belongs elsewhere. :)

Christianity teaches that God gave humans free will, the ability to choose between good and evil, but it also teaches that God is all-knowing -- he knows the past, the present, and the future. If this is true, God would know the sins we will commit and how our minds will work. Thus, the course of time must be set and fate must be inevitable, or else there would be no "future" for God to know.

Before you theists pop in and say "Our actions decide our future!", consider this: there is only one true future, one true way time will work out. For example, if you planned to go rock-climbing on Saturday, and then you somehow had a vision you would fall off the rock-climbing wall and break your arm, so you did not go rock-climbing, truly, you did not change the future: the true future was that you would have this vision and not go rock-climbing. This was bound to happen. It would have happened no other way.

Question for debate: Could free will and God's omniscience be contradictory? Could we be held responsible for the way our lives were determined on the path of time? If we are bound to sin somehow in the future, are we responsible for these sins, or are we following the path of time?

This article did well in explaining this theory:
http://everything2.com/title/Beyond%252 ... %2520Exist

Hi Peacewolf,
Could free will and God's omniscience be contradictory? Could we be held responsible for the way our lives were determined on the path of time? If we are bound to sin somehow in the future, are we responsible for these sins, or are we following the path of time?
It is a bit of a catch 22 isn't it. Going by the creationist christian version of "god", god "literally" created EVERYTHING, including "good" and "evil"(for some reason there is no shades of grey - just black/white = good/evil), which in my opinion seeing it from that take, that would actually negate the concept of FREE WILL per se, and instead merely conditional will, based purely on what "god" - in the beginning - had allegedly "created" to be the "options" to go with.

That being the case though, to believe the literally interpretation of "the" WW flood, I doubt that every other man or woman apart from "god's "chosen - ie Noah and family, OR any of the animals and plants on the face of the earth, committed some unforgivable "evil" to warrant instant death at the hands of "god". What choice, was given to all that perished? Were any of the others even GIVEN a choice, given "gods" decision to just do it? Or were they just collateral damage because god was ticked off? What would have happened to Noah, if he had used even his conditional "will" and said to "god"...nah...not going to make that Ark, big guy. Given other biblical examples, I reckon there would have been an additional smoting..just a hunch...which again doesn't show a free will option, but rather, one based purely on conditional parameters set by "another", rather than ones self.

There are so many other examples and if later you want me to show them, I can.

muhammad rasullah wrote:
Unlike animals cats, dogs, lions and the like. They do not have free will they cannot discern between right or wrong, moral or immoral. Mankind has been given this attribute which places him above the animals and the angels because the angels can only do what they are told by Allah but nevermind that.
Humans don't have free will, it is conditional based purely pre-determined (taught) parameters, of what we can and can't do, determining a "right" vs "wrong" mindset. Secondly, we "humans" are not above other animals, as we learn FROM THEM, rather than them actually giving a toss as to how WE do things. The human ego though is so freakin' brittle, we have to claim that something we have watched other animals do, just happening in nature, is OUR "idea" or our brainstorm. Some humans are just smart enough to observe in the first place and kudos to them for picking up on it.
Cnorman18 wrote:
What is God?

We don't know.
But obviously by other things you have written on this thread, you are showing "whatever god is"(if such a thing exists, other than in the minds of the believers IN "it") it IS masculine in "entity" even when stating it is "unknown", over just being an "IT".
The constant referral to its personalised "identity" as HE, speaks volumes.

A take I have never really understood, considering even in asexual(parthenogenic) "production" of new life, it has in near ALL cases been the female and not the male to do it.

Religious writings have also given "it"(assumed as a He) very human emotions of being jealous or pleased or angry, hence alleged "justifications" for actions, even in the Hebrew writings.


To peacewolf. As to TIME? WHat determines that and how it is relative to "god"? Like any "god"(male or female) entity I have learned about, they have all been learned about in MY own life TIME, thus far. It may be a simplistic way to look at things but given that, I see the concept of TIME as nothing more than a man made understanding and therefore to even claim to accept "god" or not, the god concept HAS only existed in TIME.

cnorman18

Re: God's gender

Post #15

Post by cnorman18 »

catalyst wrote:Cnorman18 wrote:
What is God?

We don't know.
But obviously by other things you have written on this thread, you are showing "whatever god is"(if such a thing exists, other than in the minds of the believers IN "it") it IS masculine in "entity" even when stating it is "unknown", over just being an "IT".
The constant referral to its personalised "identity" as HE, speaks volumes.

A take I have never really understood, considering even in asexual(parthenogenic) "production" of new life, it has in near ALL cases been the female and not the male to do it.
This is a very common and understandable misperception of Jewish teachings.

It was acknowledged and taught from the very beginning that God's gender is at once both male and female. This is emphasized pretty clearly in the very first chapter of Genesis:

Verse 27: "And God created man in His image, in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them."

Pretty hard to miss. This verse was read to mean exactly what it says from the beginning of the tradition; God's image is both male and female. Just as in English, the collective noun "man," used here as in "mankind," includes both men and women.

The main reason that God is consistently referred to as "He" in the Bible (and in my own writing) is an accident of language; there is no appropriate personal pronoun that is gender-neutral in either English or Hebrew. "It" simply won't do; we don't even call our pets "it," and most people seem to think that's it's less rude to call a child who is present by the wrong pronoun than to refer to that child as "it." That word is applied to objects, not persons, and is commonly used to demean and denigrate its subject, as in the words of the serial killer in The Silence of the Lambs. A person is either he or she, but never it.

The conventional choice, in a society such as our own with a patriarchal history, is He; but there are, as it happens, new approaches to liturgy and Bible translation in modern Judaism that attempt something closer to gender neutrality. The new Reform prayerbook recently published in the UK is particularly notable in that regard, using "She" as often as "He."

If that's not enough, the fact is that several of the names or words applied to God in the Hebrew Bible are in fact of feminine form, most notably Shekhinah, which denotes the presence of God. In every study session or book that I have participated in or read, these points are made clear, especially if anyone questions the use of the masculine pronoun or if the point is relevant to the discussion.
Religious writings have also given "it"(assumed as a He) very human emotions of being jealous or pleased or angry, hence alleged "justifications" for actions, even in the Hebrew writings.
I have posted comments on this before. God is also described in the Bible as having hands, eyes, and a mouth, but no Jew has ever - ever - read those passages literally. Those passages which refer to God's anger (or love, or sorrow, or whatever) are considered equally metaphorical.

We have no way of knowing God's emotions, or indeed if He has emotions; nor do we presume to know His thoughts. Those images are used because we have no others that would be meaningful to us, and that was even more true three thousand years ago.

Just as when Jews discuss, say, the Flood story as if it really happened, for the sake of the concepts and principles taught there, without for a moment thinking it to be literally true, we speak of "the mighty hand and outstretched arm" of God without believing that God has limbs; and we speak of God's love and wrath in the same way. Those terms are about the consequences for humans of disobedience or devotion in the narratives and laws; we have no warrant to say that we know what God Himself is thinking or feeling from His point of view.

All these teachings are made explicit in the Talmud, and are well known to most Jewishly educated Jews. That is not to say that there are not Jews who take their religion for granted, have not studied it beyond Bar Mitzvah age, and think literally - just as many ill-educated or fundamentalist Christians do. Even so, those shallow and literal beliefs are not the teachings of modern Judaism.

I will say again, as I have said so many times before: it is not wise, fair, nor accurate to make assumptions about Jewish beliefs from reading the Bible alone. Jewish teachings are not to be found there, but in the tradition.

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