Comparing K.J.B. with N.W.T.

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placebofactor
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Comparing K.J.B. with N.W.T.

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Post by placebofactor »

This is a direct challenge, verse by verse of the N.W.T., and the King James Bible. I am not going to give an opinion. You can compare and decide which Bible is true to the word. I will be using an 1824 and 2015 King James Bibles. As for the N.W.T., I have the 1971, 1984, and 2013 editions. Their first copyright came out in 1961. Before 1961 the Witnesses used a K.J.B.

Okay, let’s get started.
We should all agree on this. The original language of the Old Testament was written in Hebrew and a few verses were written in Chaldean. The New Testament was originally penned in Greek.
The foundation source for the K.J.B. is the Textus Receptus or Received Text. The translation of the text of all ancient known Papyrus Fragments, Uncials, Cursives, and Lectionaries, collectively are known as the "Receptus Textus" and the "Masoretic text." Their number, 5,500 copies, plus 86,000 quotations or allusions to the Scriptures by early Church Fathers. There are another 45 document sources for the N.W.T., although they list 94 in the 1984 edition. The N.W.T. two main sources are the "B" Vatican manuscripts 1209, and the A. or, "Aleph Sinaiticus."

Let’s begin with Philippians 2:8-9-10-11.

Verse 8 in K.J.B. ends with “death of the cross.”
Verse 8, N.W.T. ends with, “death on a torture stake.”

Verse 9 in the N.W.T. ends with a comma “,”.
Verse 9 in the K.J.B. ends with a colon: I hope you understand the difference between the two. The N.W.T. is the only Bible that ends verse 9 with a comma.

Also, note as you read these verses, they have added the word (other) and put it in brackets in the 1984 edition, but removed the brackets in the 1971 or 2013 editions, making it part of the verse. Adding the word (other) gives a reader the impression that the name of Jesus is second to the name Jehovah. In their Interlinear translation, their Greek reads, “over every name.”

Also, "(at) the name of Jesus" has been changed to "(in) the name of Jesus.
"Bow a knee" has been changed to "bend," and "confess" has been changed to "acknowledge."

Bend is not a New Testament word. In the O.T. it is used strictly for “bending or stringing a bow.” To bow a knee is to pay homage or worship. Compare with Romans 14:11, As I live, said the LORD, every knee shall bow to me,” Same word in Philippians.

In English, "bend," means to change shape, or change someone's will, to yield or submit. To yield or submit is not to worship. This change of words chips away at the glory of the Lord Jesus.
Compare verses below:

K.J.B.
Philippians 2: 9-10-11, "God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth and things under the earth; (semi colon) And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."

N.W.T.
Philippians 2:9-10-11, “For this very reason also God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every (other) name, so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, (coma) and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.
Your comments on the above.

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Re: Comparing K.J.B. with N.W.T.

Post #271

Post by Bible_Student »

Difflugia wrote: Mon Jun 09, 2025 1:14 amPsalm 82 is God addressing the council of gods over whom He is presiding and judging: "You are children of Elyon, but you will die like men!"

Contemporary rabbis decided that this psalm was a bit more polytheistic than they were comfortable with, so they interpreted this as God addressing human beings. ...
No one, whether from contemporary times or history, has determined that Psalm 82 was directed toward human judges. It is the Bible, within its own context, that makes this clear. Jesus later affirmed this understanding.

To grasp this concept, one must engage with the Bible; it is not theologians who dictate the interpretation of inspired Scripture.

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Re: Comparing K.J.B. with N.W.T.

Post #272

Post by Difflugia »

Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 1:59 pmIt is the Bible, within its own context, that makes this clear. Jesus later affirmed this understanding.
This is the ultimate form of circular eisegesis. It's not the Bible's context that "makes clear" that the gods in Psalm 82 are really people, but the contexts of Jewish and Christian traditions. Both insist on monotheism and inerrancy and Psalm 82 can't satisfy both as written.

The gods in Psalm 82 are children of Elyon, but will die the same way human beings do. The context of the Bible here insists that those gods aren't human beings, to whom they're being compared. That's a relatively small injury to the text's meaning, though, compared to preserving human tradition and theology.
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 1:59 pmTo grasp this concept, one must engage with the Bible;
QFT.
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 1:59 pmit is not theologians who dictate the interpretation of inspired Scripture.
You certainly try, though.
My pronouns are he, him, and his.

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Re: Comparing K.J.B. with N.W.T.

Post #273

Post by Bible_Student »

In Psalm 82, Jehovah addresses human judges who act unjustly, rather than any literal "god."

The term "gods" does not refer to pagan gods judging over mankind, especially not within Israel.

Deut. 1:16 At that time I instructed your judges, ‘When you hear a case between your brothers, you are to judge with righteousness between a man and his brother or a foreign resident. 17 You must not be partial in judgment. You should hear the small one the same as the great one. You must not become intimidated by men, for the judgment belongs to God; and if a case is too difficult for you, you should present it to me, and I will hear it.’

2 Chron. 19:7 Now let the fear of Jehovah be upon you. Be careful about what you do, for with Jehovah our God there is no injustice, no partiality, no bribe-taking.

At no point were the Israelites told to fear the judgment of the gods of the nations. Do not project pagan polytheism onto the true form of worship given to Israel.

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Re: Comparing K.J.B. with N.W.T.

Post #274

Post by Difflugia »

Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 4:23 pmIn Psalm 82, Jehovah addresses human judges who act unjustly, rather than any literal "god."
Are those literal human judges also literal children of Elyon? So, demigods, then?
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 4:23 pmThe term "gods" does not refer to pagan gods judging over mankind, especially not within Israel.
At least not according to religious tradition.
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 4:23 pmDeut. 1:16 At that time I instructed your judges,
Psalms 82:6 I said, "You are gods, and all of you children of Elyon."
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 4:23 pmAt no point were the Israelites told to fear the judgment of the gods of the nations.
Right. In the polytheism that remains in the Bible, the god of Israel rules over the other gods.
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 4:23 pmDo not project pagan polytheism onto the true form of worship given to Israel.
I get it. We're supposed to do it the other way and project our monotheism onto the polytheistic text of Psalm 82.
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Re: Comparing K.J.B. with N.W.T.

Post #275

Post by Bible_Student »

Asaph, the divinely inspired writer of Psalm 82, was a Levite, belonging to the Israelite tribe designated to fulfill the role of priests for Jehovah.

Who can conceive that a Levite could be a polytheist? Only contemporary theorists, modern biblical speculators who call themselves "biblical scholars", who overlook the significance of Israel as a nation selected to worship a single God. Many outsiders came to recognize and revere the God of Israel like Rahab in Jericho (Josh. 2:8-11) and the Gibeonites (Josh. 9:8-11). A thorough study of the Bible will reveal this truth.

I have no additional comments on this matter. Thank you for your time and attention to my posts.
Have a good day.

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Re: Comparing K.J.B. with N.W.T.

Post #276

Post by Difflugia »

Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 6:39 pmAsaph, the divinely inspired writer of Psalm 82, was a Levite, belonging to the Israelite tribe designated to fulfill the role of priests for Jehovah.
If he was divinely inspired, why do you have to change the meaning of what he wrote?
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 4:23 pmWho can conceive that a Levite could be a polytheist?
A divinely inspired psalmist, apparently.
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 4:23 pmOnly contemporary theorists, modern biblical speculators who call themselves "biblical scholars", who overlook the significance of Israel as a nation selected to worship a single God.
Or someone willing to trust an author that you're calling divinely inspired.
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 4:23 pmMany outsiders came to recognize and revere the God of Israel like Rahab in Jericho (Josh. 2:8-11) and the Gibeonites (Josh. 9:8-11). A thorough study of the Bible will reveal this truth.
QFT.
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 4:23 pmI have no additional comments on this matter.
It's OK if you end up changing your mind.
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 4:23 pmThank you for your time and attention to my posts.
You're welcome.
Bible_Student wrote: Mon Jul 07, 2025 4:23 pmHave a good day.
Thank you in return.
My pronouns are he, him, and his.

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