JESUS IS NOT GOD

[onewithhim]

I would very much like to get opinions on this subject. I'll provide several verses from the King James Version of the Bible, and I ask you to give me feed-back.


Jesus' words:

1) "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise." (John 5:19)

2) "My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." (John 7:16)

3) "Neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42)

He replied, after the Pharisees accused him of making himself God:
4) "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the SON of God?" (John 10:36)

5) "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50)

6) To his Father in prayer: "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God , and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)

7) "I ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)

To John in the Revelation:
8) "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God..." (Revelation 3:12)



Do these quotations show that Jesus was NOT God?

Do YOU believe that he claimed to be God?

[Capbook]

I would very much like to get opinions on this subject. I'll provide several verses from the King James Version of the Bible, and I ask you to give me feed-back.


Jesus' words:

1) "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise." (John 5:19)

2) "My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." (John 7:16)

3) "Neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42)

He replied, after the Pharisees accused him of making himself God:
4) "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the SON of God?" (John 10:36)

5) "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50)

6) To his Father in prayer: "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God , and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)

7) "I ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)

To John in the Revelation:
8) "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God..." (Revelation 3:12)



Don't these quotations show that Jesus was NOT God?

Do YOU believe that he claimed to be God?

What do those verses say about Jesus? Can anyone explain what they mean? What is your opinion?

Does it look like from these verses that Jesus claimed to be God?

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

[onewithhim]

I would very much like to get opinions on this subject. I'll provide several verses from the King James Version of the Bible, and I ask you to give me feed-back.


Jesus' words:

1) "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise." (John 5:19)

2) "My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." (John 7:16)

3) "Neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42)

He replied, after the Pharisees accused him of making himself God:
4) "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the SON of God?" (John 10:36)

5) "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50)

6) To his Father in prayer: "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God , and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)

7) "I ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)

To John in the Revelation:
8) "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God..." (Revelation 3:12)



Don't these quotations show that Jesus was NOT God?

Do YOU believe that he claimed to be God?

What do those verses say about Jesus? Can anyone explain what they mean? What is your opinion?

Does it look like from these verses that Jesus claimed to be God?

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

[Capbook]

I would very much like to get opinions on this subject. I'll provide several verses from the King James Version of the Bible, and I ask you to give me feed-back.


Jesus' words:

1) "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise." (John 5:19)

2) "My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." (John 7:16)

3) "Neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42)

He replied, after the Pharisees accused him of making himself God:
4) "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the SON of God?" (John 10:36)

5) "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50)

6) To his Father in prayer: "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God , and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)

7) "I ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)

To John in the Revelation:
8) "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God..." (Revelation 3:12)



Don't these quotations show that Jesus was NOT God?

Do YOU believe that he claimed to be God?

What do those verses say about Jesus? Can anyone explain what they mean? What is your opinion?

Does it look like from these verses that Jesus claimed to be God?

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure"

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

[servant1]

[Replying to Tcg in post #3]

As Onewithin showed--Jesus can do 0 of his own inititive--God did all the powerful works through Jesus-Acts 2:22--

[Capbook]

I would very much like to get opinions on this subject. I'll provide several verses from the King James Version of the Bible, and I ask you to give me feed-back.


Jesus' words:

1) "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise." (John 5:19)

2) "My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." (John 7:16)

3) "Neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42)

He replied, after the Pharisees accused him of making himself God:
4) "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the SON of God?" (John 10:36)

5) "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50)

6) To his Father in prayer: "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God , and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)

7) "I ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)

To John in the Revelation:
8) "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God..." (Revelation 3:12)



Don't these quotations show that Jesus was NOT God?

Do YOU believe that he claimed to be God?

What do those verses say about Jesus? Can anyone explain what they mean? What is your opinion?

Does it look like from these verses that Jesus claimed to be God?

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure" in Greek "harpagmos" defined as retained, to be held fast and etc.
It would mean Jesus, Who being in the form of God, did not think it a matter to be earnestly desired to appear (retained) equal to God; but made himself of no reputation.

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

[onewithhim]

I would very much like to get opinions on this subject. I'll provide several verses from the King James Version of the Bible, and I ask you to give me feed-back.


Jesus' words:

1) "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise." (John 5:19)

2) "My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." (John 7:16)

3) "Neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42)

He replied, after the Pharisees accused him of making himself God:
4) "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the SON of God?" (John 10:36)

5) "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50)

6) To his Father in prayer: "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God , and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)

7) "I ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)

To John in the Revelation:
8) "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God..." (Revelation 3:12)



Don't these quotations show that Jesus was NOT God?

Do YOU believe that he claimed to be God?

What do those verses say about Jesus? Can anyone explain what they mean? What is your opinion?

Does it look like from these verses that Jesus claimed to be God?

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure"

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before. Your own line above shows that Jesus was in the appearance of God [spirit] and existing NOT concerning a seizure to esteem himself to be equal with God. Many versions render it that way.

"Who, although he existed in the form of God, did NOT regard equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Phil.2:6, NASB, NIV, ASB, RSV) Many others as well have the same rendering.

Paul was teaching that Christ was humble. He wanted to emphasize this fact by stating something that Christ would never do, to show His humility.

[Capbook]

I would very much like to get opinions on this subject. I'll provide several verses from the King James Version of the Bible, and I ask you to give me feed-back.


Jesus' words:

1) "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise." (John 5:19)

2) "My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." (John 7:16)

3) "Neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42)

He replied, after the Pharisees accused him of making himself God:
4) "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the SON of God?" (John 10:36)

5) "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50)

6) To his Father in prayer: "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God , and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)

7) "I ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)

To John in the Revelation:
8) "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God..." (Revelation 3:12)



Don't these quotations show that Jesus was NOT God?

Do YOU believe that he claimed to be God?

What do those verses say about Jesus? Can anyone explain what they mean? What is your opinion?

Does it look like from these verses that Jesus claimed to be God?

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure"

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before. Your own line above shows that Jesus was in the appearance of God [spirit] and existing NOT concerning a seizure to esteem himself to be equal with God. Many versions render it that way.

"Who, although he existed in the form of God, did NOT regard equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Phil.2:6, NASB, NIV, ASB, RSV) Many others as well have the same rendering.

Paul was teaching that Christ was humble. He wanted to emphasize this fact by stating something that Christ would never do, to show His humility.

You confine your interpretation almost through translations and pick some definition of Bible words that suits you.
Are " to be held fast and retained" not a definition to the word "seized" in Greek "harpagmos"?
Can you visit your original Greek text of Phi 2:6 and post it here just what I did?

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

[onewithhim]

I would very much like to get opinions on this subject. I'll provide several verses from the King James Version of the Bible, and I ask you to give me feed-back.


Jesus' words:

1) "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise." (John 5:19)

2) "My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." (John 7:16)

3) "Neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42)

He replied, after the Pharisees accused him of making himself God:
4) "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the SON of God?" (John 10:36)

5) "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50)

6) To his Father in prayer: "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God , and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)

7) "I ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)

To John in the Revelation:
8) "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God..." (Revelation 3:12)



Don't these quotations show that Jesus was NOT God?

Do YOU believe that he claimed to be God?

What do those verses say about Jesus? Can anyone explain what they mean? What is your opinion?

Does it look like from these verses that Jesus claimed to be God?

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure"

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before. Your own line above shows that Jesus was in the appearance of God [spirit] and existing NOT concerning a seizure to esteem himself to be equal with God. Many versions render it that way.

"Who, although he existed in the form of God, did NOT regard equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Phil.2:6, NASB, NIV, ASB, RSV) Many others as well have the same rendering.

Paul was teaching that Christ was humble. He wanted to emphasize this fact by stating something that Christ would never do, to show His humility.

You confine your interpretation almost through translations and pick some definition of Bible words that suits you.
Are " to be held fast and retained" not a definition to the word "seized" in Greek "harpagmos"?
Can you visit your original Greek text of Phi 2:6 and post it here just what I did?

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

"Harpagmos" is a Greek word meaning to seize something you didn't have before. You notice that one of your definitions is "robbery." Jesus surely wouldn't have committed robbery. His humility is in the forefront, and the thing Paul was trying to get across.

Paul wrote, "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus." (Phil 2:5) What was that mental attitude? Verse 3 brings out that : "Lowliness of mind considering that the others are superior to you." How is grasping equality with God "considering others as superior to you"? It doesn't fit with the theme of Paul's passage here.

[Difflugia]

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before.

The BDAG says, "only the context and an understanding of Paul’s thought in general can decide whether it means holding fast to something already obtained or the appropriation to oneself of something that is sought after."

Since that directly contradicts what you said, maybe you could provide a source for your assertion. Or is the source your own wishful thinking?

[onewithhim]

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before.

The BDAG says, "only the context and an understanding of Paul’s thought in general can decide whether it means holding fast to something already obtained or the appropriation to oneself of something that is sought after."

Since that directly contradicts what you said, maybe you could provide a source for your assertion. Or is the source your own wishful thinking?

That doesn't contradict what I said. As I have said, Paul was clearly referring to Christ's humility in those verses, so the second meaning that you posted is the correct one, taking into consideration the context. If Christ was humble he wouldn't be searching for a way to seize equality with God.

Paul mentions "lowliness of mind" in verse 3, "not looking each of you to his own things, but each of you also to the things of others." (v.4) "Have this in mind which was also in Christ Jesus..." So this shows unequivocally that Jesus was a humble individual. The verses go on to say, "who, existing in the form of God [spirit], counted NOT the being on an equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Brackets mine.)American Standard Version. So, viewing the surrounding verses we can get the proper meaning of verse 6. Context is important.