Why is divorce not an option for Christians?

[arunangelo]

In marriage, spouses leave their parents and unite with each other (Mark 10:7) to become one flesh (Gen.2: 24). Because, it is a covenant of love, and God is love (1 John4:8), it is God who seals the marriage covenant; and no one can separate what God has joined together (Matt 19:6). In divorce, therefore, this covenant is not broken; it is rejected. Therefore, remarriage after divorce is adultery (Luke 16:18). Furthermore, since God seals this covenant, divorce is rejection of God. God, therefore, hates divorce (Malachi 2:16) and is not pleased with the offerings of those who divorce their spouse (Malachi 2: 13-14). Jesus tells us that before making offering to God, we must reconcile with those with whom we have grievances (Matt. 5: 23-24). Therefore, a divorced person must first reconcile with his/her spouse before making an offering to the Lord. Furthermore, even if there is unfaithfulness a person must still stay faith to his/her spouse, just as God His faithful to us even when we reject Him (Hosea 3:1).

Divorce is absolutely prohibited in the Gospels (Mk 10:11-12, Luke 6:18; Matthew 5: 31-32). In Matthew’s gospel there appears to be an exception. The exception in the Greek text is porneia (which means incest or fornication), and not moiceia (which means adultery). In the Mosaic Law (Lv 18:6-18) certain types of marriages between close relatives were unlawful, because, they were regarded as incest (porneia). Certain rabbis, however, allowed gentile converts to Judaism to remain in such marriages. The exemption in Matthew’s gospel is against such permissiveness for gentile converts to Christianity. Fornication is another meaning for porneia. Therefore, this exception also applies to couples who fornicate by living together without a lawful marriage (also known as common law marriages).

surrendersacrifice
webs site: surrendersacrifice.com

[Athetotheist]

The problem Christianity runs into here is that what Moses wrote is part of scripture (Deuteronomy 24:1), and according to Christian doctrine, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness...." (2 Timothy 3:16).

If the scripture Moses wrote was given by divine inspiration, how could he have written it because of people's "hardness of heart"?

I believe GOD directed Moses how to respond to the people's "hardness of heart".

Then why did Jesus take issue with it? In Matthew's version, Jesus tells them that Moses "suffered you to put away your wives", which Jesus was not suffering them to do.

[JehovahsWitness]

The problem Christianity runs into here is that what Moses wrote is part of scripture (Deuteronomy 24:1), and according to Christian doctrine, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness...." (2 Timothy 3:16).

If the scripture Moses wrote was given by divine inspiration, how could he have written it because of people's "hardness of heart"?

I believe GOD directed Moses how to respond to the people's "hardness of heart".

Then why did Jesus take issue with it?

I don't think he "took issue" he just started what he believe to be a historical fact.

In Matthew's version, Jesus tells them that Moses "suffered you to put away your wives", which Jesus was not suffering them to do.

So ? So what?!




JW

[tam]

Peace to you both (and all),

An exception was made for the people due to the hardness of their hearts (this is unlikely to be the ONLY exception made due to their hardness of hearts). But remember that Moses also said when the Messiah comes, the people were to listen to Him. The Messiah came and He told them what was true from the beginning.


(Granted, not everything in what is written is accurate, even if it was inspired/given in/from the spirit. Due to the erring pen of the scribes, see Jeremiah 8:8, and as Christ also said 'woe to you scribes'. I don't think that makes a difference on this particular point though, since Christ explained that Moses gave them this command due to their hardness of hearts.)


Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

[Athetotheist]

In Matthew's version, Jesus tells them that Moses "suffered you to put away your wives", which Jesus was not suffering them to do.

So ? So what?!

Deuteronomy 4:2----

"You shall not add to the word which I command you, nor take from it, that you may keep the commandments of the Lord your God which I command you."

So that.

[JehovahsWitness]

Deuteronomy 4:2----

"You shall not add to the word which I command you, nor take from it, that you may keep the commandments of the Lord your God which I command you."

Are you suggesting Almighty God is not allowed to add to his own law? (Compare Deut 4: 14)

I believe GOD directed Moses how to respond to the people's "hardness of heart".

JW

[Athetotheist]

Peace to you both (and all),

An exception was made for the people due to the hardness of their hearts (this is unlikely to be the ONLY exception made due to their hardness of hearts). But remember that Moses also said when the Messiah comes, the people were to listen to Him. The Messiah came and He told them what was true from the beginning.


(Granted, not everything in what is written is accurate, even if it was inspired/given in/from the spirit. Due to the erring pen of the scribes, see Jeremiah 8:8, and as Christ also said 'woe to you scribes'. I don't think that makes a difference on this particular point though, since Christ explained that Moses gave them this command due to their hardness of hearts.)

If this is an "exception", why does Moses tell them to indulge in this exception "to love the Lord your God and serve him with all your heart and with all your soul" (Dt. 11:13) and "to do what is right in the eyes of the Lord your God" (Dt. 13:18)?

[Athetotheist]

Deuteronomy 4:2----

"You shall not add to the word which I command you, nor take from it, that you may keep the commandments of the Lord your God which I command you."

So that.

Are you suggesting Almighty God is not allowed to add to his own law? (Compare Deut 4: 14)

No, but then Jesus wasn't Almighty God, was he?

Matthew 5:31-32
VS.
Deut. 4:2, Matthew 5:19

[JehovahsWitness]

.... but then Jesus wasn't Almighty God, was he?

What has that got to do with your point?

If the scripture Moses wrote was given by divine inspiration, how could he have written it because of people's "hardness of heart"?

If I'm not mistaken you seem to have been suggesting MOSES had no right to amend the law. To which I responded, he was just following directions.

Jesus made no amendement to the Mosaic law, he was giving directives to his followers.




JW

[tam]

Peace to you,

Peace to you both (and all),

An exception was made for the people due to the hardness of their hearts (this is unlikely to be the ONLY exception made due to their hardness of hearts). But remember that Moses also said when the Messiah comes, the people were to listen to Him. The Messiah came and He told them what was true from the beginning.


(Granted, not everything in what is written is accurate, even if it was inspired/given in/from the spirit. Due to the erring pen of the scribes, see Jeremiah 8:8, and as Christ also said 'woe to you scribes'. I don't think that makes a difference on this particular point though, since Christ explained that Moses gave them this command due to their hardness of hearts.)

If this is an "exception", why does Moses tell them to indulge in this exception "to love the Lord your God and serve him with all your heart and with all your soul" (Dt. 11:13) and "to do what is right in the eyes of the Lord your God" (Dt. 13:18)?

I don't understand your question. Why are you calling the other two commands, exceptions?


Peace again to you!

[Athetotheist]

.... but then Jesus wasn't Almighty God, was he?

What has that got to do with your point?

If the scripture Moses wrote was given by divine inspiration, how could he have written it because of people's "hardness of heart"?

If I'm not mistaken you seem to have been suggesting MOSES had no right to amend the law. To which I responded, he was just following directions.

Jesus made no amendement to the Mosaic law, he was giving directives to his followers.

My point? Go back and look at the verses I mentioned.

I said nothing about Moses amending the law, but you're right about Jesus not amending it; he was countermanding it in direct violation of the law itself.