JESUS IS NOT GOD

[onewithhim]

I would very much like to get opinions on this subject. I'll provide several verses from the King James Version of the Bible, and I ask you to give me feed-back.


Jesus' words:

1) "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise." (John 5:19)

2) "My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." (John 7:16)

3) "Neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42)

He replied, after the Pharisees accused him of making himself God:
4) "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the SON of God?" (John 10:36)

5) "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50)

6) To his Father in prayer: "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God , and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)

7) "I ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)

To John in the Revelation:
8) "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God..." (Revelation 3:12)



Do these quotations show that Jesus was NOT God?

Do YOU believe that he claimed to be God?

[Difflugia]

That doesn't contradict what I said. As I have said, Paul was clearly referring to Christ's humility in those verses,

Whether that's true or not, that's not the part that it contradicts.

so the second meaning that you posted is the correct one, taking into consideration the context. If Christ was humble he wouldn't be searching for a way to seize equality with God.

What? That doesn't somehow preclude the first meaning, that he was grasping something that he already had. You claim that the phrase can only have your favorite meaning, but the Lexicon specifically mentions that verse and says that the context admits of either meaning. Those two positions are contradictory. The Lexicon contradicts your statement.

So, viewing the surrounding verses we can get the proper meaning of verse 6.

We can hope.

[Capbook]

I would very much like to get opinions on this subject. I'll provide several verses from the King James Version of the Bible, and I ask you to give me feed-back.


Jesus' words:

1) "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise." (John 5:19)

2) "My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." (John 7:16)

3) "Neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42)

He replied, after the Pharisees accused him of making himself God:
4) "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the SON of God?" (John 10:36)

5) "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50)

6) To his Father in prayer: "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God , and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)

7) "I ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)

To John in the Revelation:
8) "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God..." (Revelation 3:12)



Don't these quotations show that Jesus was NOT God?

Do YOU believe that he claimed to be God?

What do those verses say about Jesus? Can anyone explain what they mean? What is your opinion?

Does it look like from these verses that Jesus claimed to be God?

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure"

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before. Your own line above shows that Jesus was in the appearance of God [spirit] and existing NOT concerning a seizure to esteem himself to be equal with God. Many versions render it that way.

"Who, although he existed in the form of God, did NOT regard equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Phil.2:6, NASB, NIV, ASB, RSV) Many others as well have the same rendering.

Paul was teaching that Christ was humble. He wanted to emphasize this fact by stating something that Christ would never do, to show His humility.

You confine your interpretation almost through translations and pick some definition of Bible words that suits you.
Are " to be held fast and retained" not a definition to the word "seized" in Greek "harpagmos"?
Can you visit your original Greek text of Phi 2:6 and post it here just what I did?

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

"Harpagmos" is a Greek word meaning to seize something you didn't have before. You notice that one of your definitions is "robbery." Jesus surely wouldn't have committed robbery. His humility is in the forefront, and the thing Paul was trying to get across.

Paul wrote, "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus." (Phil 2:5) What was that mental attitude? Verse 3 brings out that : "Lowliness of mind considering that the others are superior to you." How is grasping equality with God "considering others as superior to you"? It doesn't fit with the theme of Paul's passage here.

Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek "huparchonta" as possession, property, etc.
That would mean Jesus have or possessed that state of God. Even defined as His property.
A very contrast to your explanation without evidence.

ὑπάρχοντα huparchonta
Thayer Definition:
1) possessions, goods, wealth, property

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing, not  a seizure  esteemed it  to be  equal   with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

[onewithhim]

I would very much like to get opinions on this subject. I'll provide several verses from the King James Version of the Bible, and I ask you to give me feed-back.


Jesus' words:

1) "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise." (John 5:19)

2) "My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me." (John 7:16)

3) "Neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42)

He replied, after the Pharisees accused him of making himself God:
4) "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the SON of God?" (John 10:36)

5) "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50)

6) To his Father in prayer: "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God , and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)

7) "I ascend unto my Father, and your Father, and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17)

To John in the Revelation:
8) "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God..." (Revelation 3:12)



Don't these quotations show that Jesus was NOT God?

Do YOU believe that he claimed to be God?

What do those verses say about Jesus? Can anyone explain what they mean? What is your opinion?

Does it look like from these verses that Jesus claimed to be God?

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure"

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before. Your own line above shows that Jesus was in the appearance of God [spirit] and existing NOT concerning a seizure to esteem himself to be equal with God. Many versions render it that way.

"Who, although he existed in the form of God, did NOT regard equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Phil.2:6, NASB, NIV, ASB, RSV) Many others as well have the same rendering.

Paul was teaching that Christ was humble. He wanted to emphasize this fact by stating something that Christ would never do, to show His humility.

You confine your interpretation almost through translations and pick some definition of Bible words that suits you.
Are " to be held fast and retained" not a definition to the word "seized" in Greek "harpagmos"?
Can you visit your original Greek text of Phi 2:6 and post it here just what I did?

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

"Harpagmos" is a Greek word meaning to seize something you didn't have before. You notice that one of your definitions is "robbery." Jesus surely wouldn't have committed robbery. His humility is in the forefront, and the thing Paul was trying to get across.

Paul wrote, "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus." (Phil 2:5) What was that mental attitude? Verse 3 brings out that : "Lowliness of mind considering that the others are superior to you." How is grasping equality with God "considering others as superior to you"? It doesn't fit with the theme of Paul's passage here.

Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek "huparchonta" as possession, property, etc.
That would mean Jesus have or possessed that state of God. Even defined as His property.
A very contrast to your explanation without evidence.

Nothing there shows that Jesus is in the state of God. He was in the FORM of God, meaning a spirit Person, but never considered being equal to God by trying to snatch something that wasn't his in the first place. I stand by what I posted.

[Capbook]

What do those verses say about Jesus? Can anyone explain what they mean? What is your opinion?

Does it look like from these verses that Jesus claimed to be God?

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure"

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before. Your own line above shows that Jesus was in the appearance of God [spirit] and existing NOT concerning a seizure to esteem himself to be equal with God. Many versions render it that way.

"Who, although he existed in the form of God, did NOT regard equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Phil.2:6, NASB, NIV, ASB, RSV) Many others as well have the same rendering.

Paul was teaching that Christ was humble. He wanted to emphasize this fact by stating something that Christ would never do, to show His humility.

You confine your interpretation almost through translations and pick some definition of Bible words that suits you.
Are " to be held fast and retained" not a definition to the word "seized" in Greek "harpagmos"?
Can you visit your original Greek text of Phi 2:6 and post it here just what I did?

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

"Harpagmos" is a Greek word meaning to seize something you didn't have before. You notice that one of your definitions is "robbery." Jesus surely wouldn't have committed robbery. His humility is in the forefront, and the thing Paul was trying to get across.

Paul wrote, "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus." (Phil 2:5) What was that mental attitude? Verse 3 brings out that : "Lowliness of mind considering that the others are superior to you." How is grasping equality with God "considering others as superior to you"? It doesn't fit with the theme of Paul's passage here.

Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek "huparchonta" as possession, property, etc.
That would mean Jesus have or possessed that state of God. Even defined as His property.
A very contrast to your explanation without evidence.

Nothing there shows that Jesus is in the state of God. He was in the FORM of God, meaning a spirit Person, but never considered being equal to God by trying to snatch something that wasn't his in the first place. I stand by what I posted.

The word "appearance" in Greek "morphe" defined as nature, form etc.
That would be understood as, "Who in the nature of God."
To experience eternal life, we must know who truly Jesus is.(John 17:3)

μορφή morphē
mor-fay'
Perhaps from the base of G3313 (through the idea of adjustment of parts); shape; figuratively nature: - form.

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

[onewithhim]

Does it look like from these verses that Jesus claimed to be God?

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure"

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before. Your own line above shows that Jesus was in the appearance of God [spirit] and existing NOT concerning a seizure to esteem himself to be equal with God. Many versions render it that way.

"Who, although he existed in the form of God, did NOT regard equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Phil.2:6, NASB, NIV, ASB, RSV) Many others as well have the same rendering.

Paul was teaching that Christ was humble. He wanted to emphasize this fact by stating something that Christ would never do, to show His humility.

You confine your interpretation almost through translations and pick some definition of Bible words that suits you.
Are " to be held fast and retained" not a definition to the word "seized" in Greek "harpagmos"?
Can you visit your original Greek text of Phi 2:6 and post it here just what I did?

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

"Harpagmos" is a Greek word meaning to seize something you didn't have before. You notice that one of your definitions is "robbery." Jesus surely wouldn't have committed robbery. His humility is in the forefront, and the thing Paul was trying to get across.

Paul wrote, "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus." (Phil 2:5) What was that mental attitude? Verse 3 brings out that : "Lowliness of mind considering that the others are superior to you." How is grasping equality with God "considering others as superior to you"? It doesn't fit with the theme of Paul's passage here.

Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek "huparchonta" as possession, property, etc.
That would mean Jesus have or possessed that state of God. Even defined as His property.
A very contrast to your explanation without evidence.

Nothing there shows that Jesus is in the state of God. He was in the FORM of God, meaning a spirit Person, but never considered being equal to God by trying to snatch something that wasn't his in the first place. I stand by what I posted.

The word "appearance" in Greek "morphe" defined as nature, form etc.
That would be understood as, "Who in the nature of God."
To experience eternal life, we must know who truly Jesus is.(John 17:3)

You say that "morphe" is defined as "form." I have been saying that all along. Jesus was and now is in the form of God, meaning he is a Spirit just like God.

I pray that you can begin somehow to understand just who Jesus truly is. The time for him to return is very fast approaching.

[Capbook]

Jesus though in the form of God humbled himself and became obedient to the Father, even in the death of the cross.
I just don't know why the logic below cannot be applied the same to the other?
1. If Jesus is in the "form of a servant" is He a true man? Yes or no.
2. If Jesus is in the "form of God" why some cannot see the logic there that He is a true God?

Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure"

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before. Your own line above shows that Jesus was in the appearance of God [spirit] and existing NOT concerning a seizure to esteem himself to be equal with God. Many versions render it that way.

"Who, although he existed in the form of God, did NOT regard equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Phil.2:6, NASB, NIV, ASB, RSV) Many others as well have the same rendering.

Paul was teaching that Christ was humble. He wanted to emphasize this fact by stating something that Christ would never do, to show His humility.

You confine your interpretation almost through translations and pick some definition of Bible words that suits you.
Are " to be held fast and retained" not a definition to the word "seized" in Greek "harpagmos"?
Can you visit your original Greek text of Phi 2:6 and post it here just what I did?

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

"Harpagmos" is a Greek word meaning to seize something you didn't have before. You notice that one of your definitions is "robbery." Jesus surely wouldn't have committed robbery. His humility is in the forefront, and the thing Paul was trying to get across.

Paul wrote, "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus." (Phil 2:5) What was that mental attitude? Verse 3 brings out that : "Lowliness of mind considering that the others are superior to you." How is grasping equality with God "considering others as superior to you"? It doesn't fit with the theme of Paul's passage here.

Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek "huparchonta" as possession, property, etc.
That would mean Jesus have or possessed that state of God. Even defined as His property.
A very contrast to your explanation without evidence.

Nothing there shows that Jesus is in the state of God. He was in the FORM of God, meaning a spirit Person, but never considered being equal to God by trying to snatch something that wasn't his in the first place. I stand by what I posted.

The word "appearance" in Greek "morphe" defined as nature, form etc.
That would be understood as, "Who in the nature of God."
To experience eternal life, we must know who truly Jesus is.(John 17:3)

You say that "morphe" is defined as "form." I have been saying that all along. Jesus was and now is in the form of God, meaning he is a Spirit just like God.

I pray that you can begin somehow to understand just who Jesus truly is. The time for him to return is very fast approaching.

Is it not that one of the definition of form is "nature"?
I also will pray for you, as I believe you study with less lexicons and only rely on translations not mostly to the original text of the Bible.
Please visit the original Greek text of 1 John 5:20 and see the difference with your relied translations.
Yes, Jesus is coming soon, the one whose human body being pierced looked upon by many and who is to come.(Rev 1:8)
Whom the Almighty Father called Himself as the first and the last as it referred to Jesus.

μορφή
morphē
mor-fay'
Perhaps from the base of G3313 (through the idea of adjustment of parts); shape; figuratively nature: - form.

[onewithhim]

1. Jesus became a man and was in the form of a man---a physical person of flesh and blood.
2. Jesus was in the form of God before and after he was on earth---a spirit Person. That is why he is said to have the form of God. God is a spirit and Jesus was also a spirit Person. The angels are also in the form of God, yet they are not God.

Your translation of Phil.2:6 clashes with many other versions.
"Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. The New American Bible The same for The Revised Standard Version and the NIV and the New American Standard Bible, as well as others. The 21st Century New Testament puts it this way:
Although he was like God in nature, he never even considered seizing the chance to be equal with God."

Paul admonishes Jesus' disciples to be humble, and that doesn't jive with claiming to be equal with God. One is not humble if he tries to do that, is he? Paul said: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus ." Humility. Someone claiming to be equal with God is not being humble.

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure"

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before. Your own line above shows that Jesus was in the appearance of God [spirit] and existing NOT concerning a seizure to esteem himself to be equal with God. Many versions render it that way.

"Who, although he existed in the form of God, did NOT regard equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Phil.2:6, NASB, NIV, ASB, RSV) Many others as well have the same rendering.

Paul was teaching that Christ was humble. He wanted to emphasize this fact by stating something that Christ would never do, to show His humility.

You confine your interpretation almost through translations and pick some definition of Bible words that suits you.
Are " to be held fast and retained" not a definition to the word "seized" in Greek "harpagmos"?
Can you visit your original Greek text of Phi 2:6 and post it here just what I did?

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

"Harpagmos" is a Greek word meaning to seize something you didn't have before. You notice that one of your definitions is "robbery." Jesus surely wouldn't have committed robbery. His humility is in the forefront, and the thing Paul was trying to get across.

Paul wrote, "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus." (Phil 2:5) What was that mental attitude? Verse 3 brings out that : "Lowliness of mind considering that the others are superior to you." How is grasping equality with God "considering others as superior to you"? It doesn't fit with the theme of Paul's passage here.

Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek "huparchonta" as possession, property, etc.
That would mean Jesus have or possessed that state of God. Even defined as His property.
A very contrast to your explanation without evidence.

Nothing there shows that Jesus is in the state of God. He was in the FORM of God, meaning a spirit Person, but never considered being equal to God by trying to snatch something that wasn't his in the first place. I stand by what I posted.

The word "appearance" in Greek "morphe" defined as nature, form etc.
That would be understood as, "Who in the nature of God."
To experience eternal life, we must know who truly Jesus is.(John 17:3)

You say that "morphe" is defined as "form." I have been saying that all along. Jesus was and now is in the form of God, meaning he is a Spirit just like God.

I pray that you can begin somehow to understand just who Jesus truly is. The time for him to return is very fast approaching.

Is it not that one of the definition of form is "nature"?
I also will pray for you, as I believe you study with less lexicons and only rely on translations not mostly to the original text of the Bible.
Please visit the original Greek text of 1 John 5:20 and see the difference with your relied translations.
Yes, Jesus is coming soon, the one whose human body being pierced looked upon by many and who is to come.(Rev 1:8)
Whom the Almighty Father called Himself as the first and the last as it referred to Jesus.

μορφή
morphē
mor-fay'
Perhaps from the base of G3313 (through the idea of adjustment of parts); shape; figuratively nature: - form.

I have visited the original Greek text of I John 5:20 and I don't see the meaning you give it. I see that the one who is the Father of Christ is the true God. Alpha and Omega is not translated the same as "first and last" and if you look at the original Greek you could see that. Why do you rely so much on your biased lexicons when you could look at the translations yourself to see the difference?

[Capbook]

If you visit the original text of Phil 2:6, the word "seizure"

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before. Your own line above shows that Jesus was in the appearance of God [spirit] and existing NOT concerning a seizure to esteem himself to be equal with God. Many versions render it that way.

"Who, although he existed in the form of God, did NOT regard equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Phil.2:6, NASB, NIV, ASB, RSV) Many others as well have the same rendering.

Paul was teaching that Christ was humble. He wanted to emphasize this fact by stating something that Christ would never do, to show His humility.

You confine your interpretation almost through translations and pick some definition of Bible words that suits you.
Are " to be held fast and retained" not a definition to the word "seized" in Greek "harpagmos"?
Can you visit your original Greek text of Phi 2:6 and post it here just what I did?

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

"Harpagmos" is a Greek word meaning to seize something you didn't have before. You notice that one of your definitions is "robbery." Jesus surely wouldn't have committed robbery. His humility is in the forefront, and the thing Paul was trying to get across.

Paul wrote, "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus." (Phil 2:5) What was that mental attitude? Verse 3 brings out that : "Lowliness of mind considering that the others are superior to you." How is grasping equality with God "considering others as superior to you"? It doesn't fit with the theme of Paul's passage here.

Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek "huparchonta" as possession, property, etc.
That would mean Jesus have or possessed that state of God. Even defined as His property.
A very contrast to your explanation without evidence.

Nothing there shows that Jesus is in the state of God. He was in the FORM of God, meaning a spirit Person, but never considered being equal to God by trying to snatch something that wasn't his in the first place. I stand by what I posted.

The word "appearance" in Greek "morphe" defined as nature, form etc.
That would be understood as, "Who in the nature of God."
To experience eternal life, we must know who truly Jesus is.(John 17:3)

You say that "morphe" is defined as "form." I have been saying that all along. Jesus was and now is in the form of God, meaning he is a Spirit just like God.

I pray that you can begin somehow to understand just who Jesus truly is. The time for him to return is very fast approaching.

Is it not that one of the definition of form is "nature"?
I also will pray for you, as I believe you study with less lexicons and only rely on translations not mostly to the original text of the Bible.
Please visit the original Greek text of 1 John 5:20 and see the difference with your relied translations.
Yes, Jesus is coming soon, the one whose human body being pierced looked upon by many and who is to come.(Rev 1:8)
Whom the Almighty Father called Himself as the first and the last as it referred to Jesus.

μορφή
morphē
mor-fay'
Perhaps from the base of G3313 (through the idea of adjustment of parts); shape; figuratively nature: - form.

I have visited the original Greek text of I John 5:20 and I don't see the meaning you give it. I see that the one who is the Father of Christ is the true God. Alpha and Omega is not translated the same as "first and last" and if you look at the original Greek you could see that. Why do you rely so much on your biased lexicons when you could look at the translations yourself to see the difference?

I always notice that your replies are just your own explanation(testimony) without evidence.
In the court of Law you have to present evidence, cause testimony is only self serving.
See below, find what the original Greek text of 1 John 5:20 that does not support your interpretation.
If you study with less lexicon and consultation from original Hebrew or Greek, we will be guilty of as I've always said eisegesis.

1Jn 5:20 And we know  that  the  son of God  has come, and   has given to us  thought  that  we should know  the one  true;  and  we are  in  the one  true,  in  his son  Jesus  Christ. This one  is  the  true  God,  and   the   life   eternal.  

1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166 

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.

[onewithhim]

The word "seizure" has the meaning of taking something that one didn't have before. Your own line above shows that Jesus was in the appearance of God [spirit] and existing NOT concerning a seizure to esteem himself to be equal with God. Many versions render it that way.

"Who, although he existed in the form of God, did NOT regard equality with God a thing to be grasped." (Phil.2:6, NASB, NIV, ASB, RSV) Many others as well have the same rendering.

Paul was teaching that Christ was humble. He wanted to emphasize this fact by stating something that Christ would never do, to show His humility.

You confine your interpretation almost through translations and pick some definition of Bible words that suits you.
Are " to be held fast and retained" not a definition to the word "seized" in Greek "harpagmos"?
Can you visit your original Greek text of Phi 2:6 and post it here just what I did?

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

"Harpagmos" is a Greek word meaning to seize something you didn't have before. You notice that one of your definitions is "robbery." Jesus surely wouldn't have committed robbery. His humility is in the forefront, and the thing Paul was trying to get across.

Paul wrote, "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus." (Phil 2:5) What was that mental attitude? Verse 3 brings out that : "Lowliness of mind considering that the others are superior to you." How is grasping equality with God "considering others as superior to you"? It doesn't fit with the theme of Paul's passage here.

Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek "huparchonta" as possession, property, etc.
That would mean Jesus have or possessed that state of God. Even defined as His property.
A very contrast to your explanation without evidence.

Nothing there shows that Jesus is in the state of God. He was in the FORM of God, meaning a spirit Person, but never considered being equal to God by trying to snatch something that wasn't his in the first place. I stand by what I posted.

The word "appearance" in Greek "morphe" defined as nature, form etc.
That would be understood as, "Who in the nature of God."
To experience eternal life, we must know who truly Jesus is.(John 17:3)

You say that "morphe" is defined as "form." I have been saying that all along. Jesus was and now is in the form of God, meaning he is a Spirit just like God.

I pray that you can begin somehow to understand just who Jesus truly is. The time for him to return is very fast approaching.

Is it not that one of the definition of form is "nature"?
I also will pray for you, as I believe you study with less lexicons and only rely on translations not mostly to the original text of the Bible.
Please visit the original Greek text of 1 John 5:20 and see the difference with your relied translations.
Yes, Jesus is coming soon, the one whose human body being pierced looked upon by many and who is to come.(Rev 1:8)
Whom the Almighty Father called Himself as the first and the last as it referred to Jesus.

μορφή
morphē
mor-fay'
Perhaps from the base of G3313 (through the idea of adjustment of parts); shape; figuratively nature: - form.

I have visited the original Greek text of I John 5:20 and I don't see the meaning you give it. I see that the one who is the Father of Christ is the true God. Alpha and Omega is not translated the same as "first and last" and if you look at the original Greek you could see that. Why do you rely so much on your biased lexicons when you could look at the translations yourself to see the difference?

I always notice that your replies are just your own explanation(testimony) without evidence.
In the court of Law you have to present evidence, cause testimony is only self serving.
See below, find what the original Greek text of 1 John 5:20 that does not support your interpretation.
If you study with less lexicon and consultation from original Hebrew or Greek, we will be guilty of as I've always said eisegesis.

1Jn 5:20 And we know  that  the  son of God  has come, and   has given to us  thought  that  we should know  the one  true;  and  we are  in  the one  true,  in  his son  Jesus  Christ. This one  is  the  true  God,  and   the   life   eternal.  

1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166 

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.

That does not indicate that Jesus is the true God. You typed in bold letters the wrong words yourself. "His" should have been typed in as bold. It is the Son's Father that is the true God.

[Capbook]

You confine your interpretation almost through translations and pick some definition of Bible words that suits you.
Are " to be held fast and retained" not a definition to the word "seized" in Greek "harpagmos"?
Can you visit your original Greek text of Phi 2:6 and post it here just what I did?

Php 2:6 who  in  the appearance  of God  existing not  seizure  esteemed it to be  equal  with God.

Php 2:6 who G3739  [2in G1722  3 the appearance G3444  4of God G2316  1existing], G5224  [2not G3756  3a seizure G725  1esteemed it] G2233 G3588  to be G1510.1  equal G2470  with God; G2316

Php 2:6 ος G3739  εν G1722  μορφη G3444  θεου G2316  υπαρχων G5224  ουχ G3756  αρπαγμον G725  ηγησατο G2233  το G3588  ειναι G1510.1  ισα G2470  θεω G2316

Php 2:6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ,

ἁρπαγμός harpagmos
Thayer Definition:
1) the act of seizing, robbery
2) a thing seized or to be seized
2a) booty to deem anything a prize
2b) a thing to be seized upon or to be held fast, retained

"Harpagmos" is a Greek word meaning to seize something you didn't have before. You notice that one of your definitions is "robbery." Jesus surely wouldn't have committed robbery. His humility is in the forefront, and the thing Paul was trying to get across.

Paul wrote, "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus." (Phil 2:5) What was that mental attitude? Verse 3 brings out that : "Lowliness of mind considering that the others are superior to you." How is grasping equality with God "considering others as superior to you"? It doesn't fit with the theme of Paul's passage here.

Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek "huparchonta" as possession, property, etc.
That would mean Jesus have or possessed that state of God. Even defined as His property.
A very contrast to your explanation without evidence.

Nothing there shows that Jesus is in the state of God. He was in the FORM of God, meaning a spirit Person, but never considered being equal to God by trying to snatch something that wasn't his in the first place. I stand by what I posted.

The word "appearance" in Greek "morphe" defined as nature, form etc.
That would be understood as, "Who in the nature of God."
To experience eternal life, we must know who truly Jesus is.(John 17:3)

You say that "morphe" is defined as "form." I have been saying that all along. Jesus was and now is in the form of God, meaning he is a Spirit just like God.

I pray that you can begin somehow to understand just who Jesus truly is. The time for him to return is very fast approaching.

Is it not that one of the definition of form is "nature"?
I also will pray for you, as I believe you study with less lexicons and only rely on translations not mostly to the original text of the Bible.
Please visit the original Greek text of 1 John 5:20 and see the difference with your relied translations.
Yes, Jesus is coming soon, the one whose human body being pierced looked upon by many and who is to come.(Rev 1:8)
Whom the Almighty Father called Himself as the first and the last as it referred to Jesus.

μορφή
morphē
mor-fay'
Perhaps from the base of G3313 (through the idea of adjustment of parts); shape; figuratively nature: - form.

I have visited the original Greek text of I John 5:20 and I don't see the meaning you give it. I see that the one who is the Father of Christ is the true God. Alpha and Omega is not translated the same as "first and last" and if you look at the original Greek you could see that. Why do you rely so much on your biased lexicons when you could look at the translations yourself to see the difference?

I always notice that your replies are just your own explanation(testimony) without evidence.
In the court of Law you have to present evidence, cause testimony is only self serving.
See below, find what the original Greek text of 1 John 5:20 that does not support your interpretation.
If you study with less lexicon and consultation from original Hebrew or Greek, we will be guilty of as I've always said eisegesis.

1Jn 5:20 And we know  that  the  son of God  has come, and   has given to us  thought  that  we should know  the one  true;  and  we are  in  the one  true,  in  his son  Jesus  Christ. This one  is  the  true  God,  and   the   life   eternal.  

1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166 

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.

That does not indicate that Jesus is the true God. You typed in bold letters the wrong words yourself. "His" should have been typed in as bold. It is the Son's Father that is the true God.

The Father was referred as "the one" twice.
Why would the twice mentioned "the one" would be another "this one"?
How come "in  his son  Jesus  Christ.  This one is  the  true  God,  and   the   life   eternal".  
Interpretation and grammar even I believe is not correct. Ok, I understand interpretation should not go beyond the GB.