Very well Happy Humanist, thank you for your comments; they will be considered and reviewed at a later time.
Corvus wrote:Ah, now we get to the part where we go about defining "free". I would say free will, as it is defined by humans, is still considered free if it is prompted/affected by internal causes or affected by external causes. My own opinion is that there is no answer to your question unless we agree on a term for free. Free was originally used to describe the opposite of a state of captivity or domination by another person. Does that mean a "free" will is only one that is not subject to an external entity? I suppose that particular definition would include everything under the sun.
Ah yes it would. Some however would distinguish those things which are external to the will. They would place two categories: those external to the person, and those internal in the person.
Some would object, as you have noted, and say that the will must be free of all external influences (whether it be in or outside the person). Yet some recognize that this is ridiculous as people will in accordance with their own feelings, you 'choose' something because you desire it the greatest at the moment.
Therefore I would recognize that the will is bound by the self, influences within the self; yet I would still maintain that it is completely unhindered by things outside of the self.
You holding a gun to my head and telling me to recant Christianity is an example of an external influence. However, if I am inclined to take up your most pleasantly presented offer, I wouldn't be doing so because you influenced me directly (indirectly, yes). As the ultimate determining factor would be my desire for life above my desire to please my Lord.
However, if I refuse to abide by your wicked threats; then it is greater desire within me to please my Lord, rather than to succumb to your wickedness.
You understand, my desires influence my will. These are internal in the self; yet external the will.
Would you agree?
Note: An issue with your question - My definition of free will stated it to be the capacity to make choices that are not a direct result of an external cause. I admit that it can be affected by external causes, and that a large part of our choices exist solely through the influence of these external causes.
Yet you would say that to be completely free, free-will must be absolutely 'free' of all external influences (desires included)?
I think I understand. And would agree. This is a working definition of 'free-will'. And if freedom is required to be devoid of all influences, I would reject this freedom. Would you not?