Revelation 1:1

[placebofactor]

The most corrupted verse besides John 1:1, found in the N.W.T. is in Revelation 1:1. The N.W.T. is the only Bible I know of that has corrupted both verses. The book of Revelation was written about 96 or 98 A.D. It is the discovery of hidden things given by the Father to Jesus Christ; that Christ gave to his angel, and that it was shown to John and that John sent it to the churches.

The K.J.B. reads, “The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God (the Father) gave unto him (his Son), to show unto his (Jesus) servants things which must shortly come to pass; (semicolon) and he (Jesus) sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John: who (John) bare record of the word of God, and of the testimony of Jesus Christ, and of all things that he (John) saw.”

Now the N.W.T. has, “A revelation by Jesus Christ, which God (the Father) gave him, to show his slaves the things that must shortly take place. (period) And he sent forth his angel and presented (it) in signs through him to his slave John.”

“The Revelation” verses “A revelation.” In their Kingdom Interlinear Translation, it reads, “Revelation of Jesus Christ.” So, in order to fit their teaching instead of “The” they decided “A revelation” would support their teaching far better.

The Witnesses have changed “of Jesus Christ” to “by Jesus Christ,” making him the messenger, and not the object of this revelation.

They also changed upper case “Revelation” to lower case “revelation.” A revelation indicates there will be more revelations to come, and this revelation is not about Jesus but the Father.

“The Revelation” indicates this will be the only revelation coming, and that Jesus is revealed as a glorious King empowered to reward and to punish.”

Over the years, the Witnesses have claimed to receive new light and new insights into the Father’s plans. Maybe that’s why they had to revive their Bible four times since 1961, claiming to have received new light in each copyright. They claim this is not a revelation about Jesus but of the Father.

In their “Aid to Bible Understanding” 1971 edition they have it, “Revelation of Jesus Christ,” and of his glory.” It’s obvious, they wrote, “A revelation” to agree with their teaching.

The following is from a red-letter edition of the K.J.B. Red-letter means Jesus is speaking.
K.J.B. He said, Revelation 1:8 “I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending said the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.”

The N.W.T. claims it’s the Father speaking. Here’s how they have it written in their Bible. Revelation 1:8, “I am Alpha and Omega,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.” They have added “Jehovah,” and changed Lord to “the One.” Why did they change Lord to One? Because it’s spelled Lord, not LORD. Lord would mean it was speaking about the Son of God, not the Father.
Your thoughts.

[1213]

The most corrupted verse besides John 1:1, found in the N.W.T. is in Revelation 1:1. The N.W.T. is the only Bible I know of that has corrupted both verses. The book of Revelation was written about 96 or 98 A.D. It is the discovery of hidden things given by the Father to Jesus Christ; that Christ gave to his angel, and that it was shown to John and that John sent it to the churches.

The K.J.B. reads, “The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God (the Father) gave unto him (his Son), to show unto his (Jesus) servants things which must shortly come to pass; (semicolon) and he (Jesus) sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John: who (John) bare record of the word of God, and of the testimony of Jesus Christ, and of all things that he (John) saw.”

Now the N.W.T. has, “A revelation by Jesus Christ, which God (the Father) gave him, to show his slaves the things that must shortly take place. (period) And he sent forth his angel and presented (it) in signs through him to his slave John.”
...
Your thoughts.

Literal translation say "A Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave to Him". And I think the important part is the "which God gave to Him".

[Capbook]

The N.W.T. claims it’s the Father speaking. Here’s how they have it written in their Bible. Revelation 1:8, “I am Alpha and Omega,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.” They have added “Jehovah,” and changed Lord to “the One.” Why did they change Lord to One? Because it’s spelled Lord, not LORD. Lord would mean it was speaking about the Son of God, not the Father.
Your thoughts.

I wonder if JW would say that Jesus was wrong when He said John 5:37.
That they have not heard the voice of the Father "at any time" (ever).
Through context was Jesus talking to the Pharisees only?
Bible lexicon defined word "at any time" in Greek "popote" means ever.
Then, who utter Rev 1:8, the Almighty?


Jhn 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.

πώποτε pōpote
Thayer Definition:
1) ever, at any time

[onewithhim]

The N.W.T. claims it’s the Father speaking. Here’s how they have it written in their Bible. Revelation 1:8, “I am Alpha and Omega,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.” They have added “Jehovah,” and changed Lord to “the One.” Why did they change Lord to One? Because it’s spelled Lord, not LORD. Lord would mean it was speaking about the Son of God, not the Father.
Your thoughts.

I wonder if JW would say that Jesus was wrong when He said John 5:37.
That they have not heard the voice of the Father "at any time" (ever).
Through context was Jesus talking to the Pharisees only?
Bible lexicon defined word "at any time" in Greek "popote" means ever.
Then, who utter Rev 1:8, the Almighty?


Jhn 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.

πώποτε pōpote
Thayer Definition:
1) ever, at any time

Why would we possibly say that Jesus was wrong? It's interesting that Jesus said that the Father bore witness of HIM. That's what Revelation is all about, though the Father, who is inspiring the book of Revelation, would include references to Himself. Isn't that a fair statement? It's from God, about Jesus, and all the things to come to pass. The Father refers to himself as the Almighty at Rev.1:8.

[Capbook]

The N.W.T. claims it’s the Father speaking. Here’s how they have it written in their Bible. Revelation 1:8, “I am Alpha and Omega,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.” They have added “Jehovah,” and changed Lord to “the One.” Why did they change Lord to One? Because it’s spelled Lord, not LORD. Lord would mean it was speaking about the Son of God, not the Father.
Your thoughts.

I wonder if JW would say that Jesus was wrong when He said John 5:37.
That they have not heard the voice of the Father "at any time" (ever).
Through context was Jesus talking to the Pharisees only?
Bible lexicon defined word "at any time" in Greek "popote" means ever.
Then, who utter Rev 1:8, the Almighty?


Jhn 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.

πώποτε pōpote
Thayer Definition:
1) ever, at any time

Why would we possibly say that Jesus was wrong? It's interesting that Jesus said that the Father bore witness of HIM. That's what Revelation is all about, though the Father, who is inspiring the book of Revelation, would include references to Himself. Isn't that a fair statement? It's from God, about Jesus, and all the things to come to pass. The Father refers to himself as the Almighty at Rev.1:8.

Do you believe what Jesus said in John 5:37, that no one ever heard the Father voice at anytime except when He borne witness of Jesus baptism?

[onewithhim]

The N.W.T. claims it’s the Father speaking. Here’s how they have it written in their Bible. Revelation 1:8, “I am Alpha and Omega,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.” They have added “Jehovah,” and changed Lord to “the One.” Why did they change Lord to One? Because it’s spelled Lord, not LORD. Lord would mean it was speaking about the Son of God, not the Father.
Your thoughts.

I wonder if JW would say that Jesus was wrong when He said John 5:37.
That they have not heard the voice of the Father "at any time" (ever).
Through context was Jesus talking to the Pharisees only?
Bible lexicon defined word "at any time" in Greek "popote" means ever.
Then, who utter Rev 1:8, the Almighty?


Jhn 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.

πώποτε pōpote
Thayer Definition:
1) ever, at any time

Why would we possibly say that Jesus was wrong? It's interesting that Jesus said that the Father bore witness of HIM. That's what Revelation is all about, though the Father, who is inspiring the book of Revelation, would include references to Himself. Isn't that a fair statement? It's from God, about Jesus, and all the things to come to pass. The Father refers to himself as the Almighty at Rev.1:8.

Do you believe what Jesus said in John 5:37, that no one ever heard the Father voice at anytime except when He borne witness of Jesus baptism?

I believe that is true.

[placebofactor]

The N.W.T. claims it’s the Father speaking. Here’s how they have it written in their Bible. Revelation 1:8, “I am Alpha and Omega,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.” They have added “Jehovah,” and changed Lord to “the One.” Why did they change Lord to One? Because it’s spelled Lord, not LORD. Lord would mean it was speaking about the Son of God, not the Father.
Your thoughts.

I wonder if JW would say that Jesus was wrong when He said John 5:37.
That they have not heard the voice of the Father "at any time" (ever).
Through context was Jesus talking to the Pharisees only?
Bible lexicon defined word "at any time" in Greek "popote" means ever.
Then, who utter Rev 1:8, the Almighty?


Jhn 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.

πώποτε pōpote
Thayer Definition:
1) ever, at any time

You wrote, "Why would we possibly say that Jesus was wrong? It's interesting that Jesus said that the Father bore witness of HIM. That's what Revelation is all about, though the Father,

" Yes, the Father gave this Revelation of his Son to his Son, who gave it to his angel who gave it to John, who gave it to us.

You wrote, "The Father "who is inspiring the book of Revelation,"

Agreed!

A Revelation of the Father, NO. It's only a Revelation of the Father if you use the N.W.T. But for the other 99 English Bibles on the market, it's "The Revelation of Jesus Christ."

You wrote, "would include references to Himself."

Correct: "Jesus said, if you've seen me, you've seen the Father." No man who has ever lived can say what Jesus said. Why, because Jesus is "the only begotten Son." Not sons like men or angels are sons, for only one is "begotten." John spoke of the only begotten Son of God in the highest sense, as alone knowing and revealing the essence of the Father.

John 1:14, "And the Word (Jesus) was made flesh, and dwelt among us (men), and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth." What other man or angel has the Father ever said these words to? Answer, "NONE!

Verse 18, "No man has seen God (the Father) at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he (the Father) has declared him (Jesus)."

John 3:16, "For God (the Father) so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believes in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." Our eternity is dependent on the Son of God, not the Father.

Verse 18, "He that believes on him (Jesus) is not condemned: but he that believes not is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God." That name is Jesus.

Isaiah 9:6, Jesus is called the mighty God," The noun holds the key to the phrase, not the adjective. Jesus is not a god, but God. The Father calls his Son God in Hebrews 1:8, "But unto the Son he (the Father) said, "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever." If the Father said his Son is God, who am I to argue with him?

You wrote, "The Father is the Almighty in Revelation 1:8.

Wrong! Revelation 1:8, Jesus is called the "Almighty." Only in the N.W.T. is the Father in verse 8 understood as the Almighty. I am not denying the Father is the Almighty, but in Revelation 1:8, the directive comes from the Father, that his Son is also "The Almighty."

[onewithhim]

The N.W.T. claims it’s the Father speaking. Here’s how they have it written in their Bible. Revelation 1:8, “I am Alpha and Omega,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.” They have added “Jehovah,” and changed Lord to “the One.” Why did they change Lord to One? Because it’s spelled Lord, not LORD. Lord would mean it was speaking about the Son of God, not the Father.
Your thoughts.

I wonder if JW would say that Jesus was wrong when He said John 5:37.
That they have not heard the voice of the Father "at any time" (ever).
Through context was Jesus talking to the Pharisees only?
Bible lexicon defined word "at any time" in Greek "popote" means ever.
Then, who utter Rev 1:8, the Almighty?


Jhn 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.

πώποτε pōpote
Thayer Definition:
1) ever, at any time

You wrote, "Why would we possibly say that Jesus was wrong? It's interesting that Jesus said that the Father bore witness of HIM. That's what Revelation is all about, though the Father,

" Yes, the Father gave this Revelation of his Son to his Son, who gave it to his angel who gave it to John, who gave it to us.

You wrote, "The Father "who is inspiring the book of Revelation,"

Agreed!

A Revelation of the Father, NO. It's only a Revelation of the Father if you use the N.W.T. But for the other 99 English Bibles on the market, it's "The Revelation of Jesus Christ."

I didn't say that the Revelation is a revelation of the Father. It is the revelation of Jesus, I agree. I said that since it is from the Father originally, it would be no stretch to say that the Father mentions Himself occasionally. Why wouldn't He? It's His work. And He has a close relationship with Jesus. We are bound to see references to the Father throughout.

[onewithhim]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #7]

The words "mighty god" refer to Jesus, yes, but that "god" is El Gibbohr. The Father is El Shaddai, which means God Almighty. Jesus is never referred to as El Shaddai. Jesus is a mighty god, as is brought out at John 1:1, but not God Almighty.

Jesus never ever refers to himself as God Almighty. In fact, he says to the Father that He, the Father, is the "only true God." (John 17:3) Why don't you take his words seriously?

[placebofactor]

The N.W.T. claims it’s the Father speaking. Here’s how they have it written in their Bible. Revelation 1:8, “I am Alpha and Omega,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.” They have added “Jehovah,” and changed Lord to “the One.” Why did they change Lord to One? Because it’s spelled Lord, not LORD. Lord would mean it was speaking about the Son of God, not the Father.
Your thoughts.

I wonder if JW would say that Jesus was wrong when He said John 5:37.
That they have not heard the voice of the Father "at any time" (ever).
Through context was Jesus talking to the Pharisees only?
Bible lexicon defined word "at any time" in Greek "popote" means ever.
Then, who utter Rev 1:8, the Almighty?


Jhn 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.

πώποτε pōpote
Thayer Definition:
1) ever, at any time

You wrote, "Why would we possibly say that Jesus was wrong? It's interesting that Jesus said that the Father bore witness of HIM. That's what Revelation is all about, though the Father,

" Yes, the Father gave this Revelation of his Son to his Son, who gave it to his angel who gave it to John, who gave it to us.

You wrote, "The Father "who is inspiring the book of Revelation,"

Agreed!

A Revelation of the Father, NO. It's only a Revelation of the Father if you use the N.W.T. But for the other 99 English Bibles on the market, it's "The Revelation of Jesus Christ."

You wrote, "I didn't say that the Revelation is a revelation of the Father. It is the revelation of Jesus, I agree. I said that since it is from the Father originally, it would be no stretch to say that the Father mentions Himself occasionally. Why wouldn't He? It's His work.

It's also his will.

You wrote, "And He has a close relationship with Jesus. We are bound to see references to the Father throughout."

I agree.

Sorry, there are so many Witnesses on this forum, I can't keep up with who's who. Let me simplify this. In the letter to the churches, Jesus presents himself in his many offices and titles. Whatever Jesus is called, so also is the Father, for the Son of God is the expressed image and likeness of the Father.

Both are
Alpha and Omega
The first and the last
the mighty and the Almighty
They walk in the midst of the golden candlesticks.
both have charity and patients
Both give manna from heaven
They have seven Spirits
Both are holy
Both are true
Both save
Both Judge
Both rule
Three persons: one will, one goal, one effort, one result, therefore, one God!