Was Paul a trinitarin?

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2timothy316
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Was Paul a trinitarin?

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Post by 2timothy316 »

Paul wrote much of the Greek scriptures. Was his goal to teach the trinity?

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Re: Was Paul a trinitarin?

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2timothy316 wrote: Thu Jun 13, 2024 9:37 pm Paul wrote much of the Greek scriptures. Was his goal to teach the trinity?
Paul said:

… we know that no idol is anything in the world, and that there is no other God but one. For though there are things that are called "gods," whether in the heavens or on earth; as there are many "gods" and many "lords;" yet to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we live through him.
1 Cor. 8:4-6

For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
1 Tim. 2:5

And nothing about Trinity. That is why I think his goal was not to teach the trinity.

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Re: Was Paul a trinitarin?

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Post by SiNcE_1985 »

1213 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:50 am
Paul said:

… we know that no idol is anything in the world, and that there is no other God but one.
Let's see how it works once we apply this reasoning to our every day lives...

Consider this statement...

"We know that in the United States, there is but one Army".

"One" army.

In fact, the USARMY's slogan used to be..

"Army of One".

Again, "one" army.

But that "one" army is made up of many different divisions, brigades, units, companies, platoons, and squads.

Yet, it is still "One" army.

If you can understand that^, you should be able to understand how "one" God can be comprised of three persons..

1 The Father.
2. The Son.
3. The Holy Spirit.

One army, many components.

One God, three persons.
For though there are things that are called "gods," whether in the heavens or on earth; as there are many "gods" and many "lords;" yet to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we live through him.
[/i]1 Cor. 8:4-6
Yeah, but see...if that is the case, then we are barred from calling the Father "Lord"...since according to this^ scripture, only Jesus is Lord.

Are you willing to take it that far?

And is this the same Paul that said..

Col 2:9 "9For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form".


I guess my question would be; can we call the Father "Lord" without contradicting 1 Cor 8:4-6?

If so, then do the same thing for Christ and his Godship.
For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
1 Tim. 2:5
I can just as easily summarize that 1 Tim. 3:16 is a Trinity Proof text...

16 "Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness:

He was manifested in the flesh,

vindicated by the Spirit,

seen by angels,

proclaimed among the nations,

believed on in the world,

taken up in glory."
And nothing about Trinity. That is why I think his goal was not to teach the trinity.
I beg to differ.
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Re: Was Paul a trinitarin?

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Post by 1213 »

SiNcE_1985 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:51 pm ...
One God, three persons...
The problem with that is, it is not said in the Bible.
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:51 pm
For though there are things that are called "gods," whether in the heavens or on earth; as there are many "gods" and many "lords;" yet to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we live through him.
[/i]1 Cor. 8:4-6
Yeah, but see...if that is the case, then we are barred from calling the Father "Lord"...since according to this^ scripture, only Jesus is Lord.
Again, it would be best not to add own words to the text. Bible doesn't say only Jesus is Lord. As we can see from here, there is two Lords:

Jesus responded, as he taught in the temple, "How is it that the scribes say that the Christ is the son of David? For David himself said in the Holy Spirit, 'The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, Until I make your enemies the footstool of your feet.' Therefore David himself calls him Lord, so how can he be his son?" The common people heard him gladly.
Mark 12:35-37

There is one Lord God, and one Lord Jesus Christ.
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:51 pmAnd is this the same Paul that said..

Col 2:9 "9For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form".
Bible tells Jesus is the temple of God. But, the same is with his disciples, they are also God's temple and God dwells in them too.

Don't you know that you are a temple of God, and that God's Spirit lives in you?
1 Cor. 3:16

It does not mean the people are God.
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:51 pm I beg to differ.
There is no word Trinity in the Bible, and it doesn't tell God consists of 3 persons. Instead the Bible tells God is the same in all.

Now there are various kinds of gifts, but the same Spirit. There are various kinds of service, and the same Lord. There are various kinds of workings, but the same God, who works all things in all.
1 Cor. 12:4-6

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Re: Was Paul a trinitarin?

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Post by SiNcE_1985 »

1213 wrote: Sun Jun 16, 2024 1:11 am
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:51 pm ...
One God, three persons...
The problem with that is, it is not said in the Bible.
There lies the contention, because Trinitarians such as myself believe that it is said in the Bible.
Again, it would be best not to add own words to the text. Bible doesn't say only Jesus is Lord. As we can see from here, there is two Lords:

Jesus responded, as he taught in the temple, "How is it that the scribes say that the Christ is the son of David? For David himself said in the Holy Spirit, 'The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, Until I make your enemies the footstool of your feet.' Therefore David himself calls him Lord, so how can he be his son?" The common people heard him gladly.
Mark 12:35-37

There is one Lord God, and one Lord Jesus Christ.
Um, you are the one who is using "one God" (as it relates to the Father in context) in 1 Cor 8:4-6 to exclude all other beings as being "God"....but the context requires you to do the same thing with "one Lord" as it relates to Jesus.

It is literally the same context.

And since you appeal to another scripture to prove Jesus' Lordship, I'll do the same to prove his Godship.

John 20:28..

28 Thomas said to him (Jesus), “My Lord and my God!”.

Now, I know this isn't something you've never seen before...well, you are seeing it again.
Bible tells Jesus is the temple of God. But, the same is with his disciples, they are also God's temple and God dwells in them too.

Don't you know that you are a temple of God, and that God's Spirit lives in you?
1 Cor. 3:16

It does not mean the people are God.
Yeah, but to see Jesus is to see God...something that does NOT apply to his disciples or any other human being.

John 14:9..

"Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father."

Those are Jesus' words, not mines.
There is no word Trinity in the Bible, and it doesn't tell God consists of 3 persons. Instead the Bible tells God is the same in all.
1. The word "Bible" is not in the Bible.

2. Therefore, we should not believe in the Bible.

Your logic^.
Now there are various kinds of gifts, but the same Spirit. There are various kinds of service, and the same Lord. There are various kinds of workings, but the same God, who works all things in all.
1 Cor. 12:4-6
Looks like the Triune Godhead to me.
I got 99 problems, dude.

Don't become the hundredth one.

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Re: Was Paul a trinitarin?

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Post by 2timothy316 »

1213 wrote: Sun Jun 16, 2024 1:11 am
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:51 pm ...
One God, three persons...
The problem with that is, it is not said in the Bible.
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:51 pm
For though there are things that are called "gods," whether in the heavens or on earth; as there are many "gods" and many "lords;" yet to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we live through him.
[/i]1 Cor. 8:4-6
Yeah, but see...if that is the case, then we are barred from calling the Father "Lord"...since according to this^ scripture, only Jesus is Lord.
Again, it would be best not to add own words to the text. Bible doesn't say only Jesus is Lord. As we can see from here, there is two Lords:

Jesus responded, as he taught in the temple, "How is it that the scribes say that the Christ is the son of David? For David himself said in the Holy Spirit, 'The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, Until I make your enemies the footstool of your feet.' Therefore David himself calls him Lord, so how can he be his son?" The common people heard him gladly.
Mark 12:35-37

There is one Lord God, and one Lord Jesus Christ.
No where does it say that Jesus can't be called lord. In 1 Sam 25:24 Abigail called king David lord but David isn't Almighty God. Abigail wasn't a trinitarian for calling David lord or view David as Almighty God, why would Paul be a trinitarian for calling Jesus lord? Paul also never called Jesus our God.

Just because someone is called lord doesn't make them Almighty God.

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Re: Was Paul a trinitarin?

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Post by SiNcE_1985 »

2timothy316 wrote: Sun Jun 16, 2024 2:56 pm
No where does it say that Jesus can't be called lord.
Straw man.

No one has said nor implied that Jesus can't be called Lord.
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Re: Was Paul a trinitarin?

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Post by 1213 »

SiNcE_1985 wrote: Sun Jun 16, 2024 1:51 am ...There lies the contention, because Trinitarians such as myself believe that it is said in the Bible.
I have not seen that.
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Sun Jun 16, 2024 1:51 am Um, you are the one who is using "one God" (as it relates to the Father in context) in 1 Cor 8:4-6 to exclude all other beings as being "God"....but the context requires you to do the same thing with "one Lord" as it relates to Jesus.
I think using the "one God" is fair, because:

yet to us there is one God, the Father
1 Cor. 8:4-6
For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
1 Tim. 2:5
This is eternal life, that they should know you, the only true God, and him whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
John 17:3

That is why for me there is just one true God, the Father of Jesus.
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Sun Jun 16, 2024 1:51 am And since you appeal to another scripture to prove Jesus' Lordship, I'll do the same to prove his Godship.

John 20:28..

28 Thomas said to him (Jesus), “My Lord and my God!”.
Bible tells God dwells in Jesus. Because they both were there, it can be said “My Lord and my God!”.

The words that I tell you, I speak not from myself; but the Father who lives in me does his works. Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me; or else believe me for the very works’ sake.
John 14:10-11
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Sun Jun 16, 2024 1:51 am Yeah, but to see Jesus is to see God...something that does NOT apply to his disciples or any other human being.

John 14:9..

"Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father."
It is said Jesus is the image of God. Obviously, if you have seen the image of God, you have seen also God?

… He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation....
Col. 1:14-16

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Re: Was Paul a trinitarin?

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Post by onewithhim »

2timothy316 wrote: Thu Jun 13, 2024 9:37 pm Paul wrote much of the Greek scriptures. Was his goal to teach the trinity?
Absolutely not. We can't detect any inclination to do such a thing anywhere in his writings. He always talks about the Father/GOD, and His Son Christ Jesus. God is always in the position of being superior, and He is responsible for Jesus' resurrection and Jesus' position in the scheme of things. He rarely mentions the Holy Spirit, so NO, he does not teach the trinity. Even if he does mention the HS, that wouldn't mean that Paul believes in the trinity.

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Re: Was Paul a trinitarin?

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Post by onewithhim »

1213 wrote: Sun Jun 16, 2024 1:11 am
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:51 pm ...
One God, three persons...
The problem with that is, it is not said in the Bible.
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:51 pm
For though there are things that are called "gods," whether in the heavens or on earth; as there are many "gods" and many "lords;" yet to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we live through him.
[/i]1 Cor. 8:4-6
Yeah, but see...if that is the case, then we are barred from calling the Father "Lord"...since according to this^ scripture, only Jesus is Lord.
Again, it would be best not to add own words to the text. Bible doesn't say only Jesus is Lord. As we can see from here, there is two Lords:

Jesus responded, as he taught in the temple, "How is it that the scribes say that the Christ is the son of David? For David himself said in the Holy Spirit, 'The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, Until I make your enemies the footstool of your feet.' Therefore David himself calls him Lord, so how can he be his son?" The common people heard him gladly.
Mark 12:35-37

There is one Lord God, and one Lord Jesus Christ.
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:51 pmAnd is this the same Paul that said..

Col 2:9 "9For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form".
Bible tells Jesus is the temple of God. But, the same is with his disciples, they are also God's temple and God dwells in them too.

Don't you know that you are a temple of God, and that God's Spirit lives in you?
1 Cor. 3:16

It does not mean the people are God.
SiNcE_1985 wrote: Fri Jun 14, 2024 2:51 pm I beg to differ.
There is no word Trinity in the Bible, and it doesn't tell God consists of 3 persons. Instead the Bible tells God is the same in all.

Now there are various kinds of gifts, but the same Spirit. There are various kinds of service, and the same Lord. There are various kinds of workings, but the same God, who works all things in all.
1 Cor. 12:4-6
Do you remember that throughout the Hebrew Scriptures the name of God has been replaced with the title "LORD" in capital letters? Wherever you see "LORD" in uppercase letters, that is where the name YHWH (commonly translated "Jehovah") should be. The "Lord" in lower case letters would mean someone else, except in the New Testament God is called "Lord" but not distinguishable from other "lords," because of faulty translating in recent centuries. But usually "God" refers to Jehovah, and the "Lord" refers to Jesus. (I Corinthians 8:5,6, KJV)

"There is actually to us one God, the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him." (I Cor. 8:6, NWT)

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