John 1:1-2Cor 4:4

[kjw47]

Any can look up the way they are written in Greek-- At both spots the Greek word for the true God ends in a v=God, capitol G. -- Both the word and satan' Greek word ends in a g= god small g= 100% fact-- Trinity religions are false religion. Translating works the same at both spots. Billions have been mislead by an error of a capitol G God in the last line at John 1:1-- Only found in altered translations( removal of Gods name in over 7000 places by satans will) so guess whose will had a error capitol G put in the last line at John 1:1? Even though the Greek lexicons show its error. The trinity scholars have to know its error. If they said something hundreds if not thousands of religions claiming to be christian are exposed as false religion, Billions of $$$ lost each year, and probably sued by 2 billion humans as well, because they know they teach lies. Owned and operated by satan, like this-2 Cor 11:12-15)--misleading all into breaking Gods #1 commandment daily.--RUN FROM THEM.

[The Tanager]

I’m trying to figure out your claim here. Are you saying that Θεὸς can never mean God, it always refers to a god? That this is what it means to be in the nominative Greek case versus the accusative case?

[onewithhim]

I’m trying to figure out your claim here. Are you saying that Θεὸς can never mean God, it always refers to a god? That this is what it means to be in the nominative Greek case versus the accusative case?

If "god" has the article, it means "God." If there is no article it means that the individual is one of many. There are many gods that men worship, however the Word is one that is acceptable to the true God, to be recognized but not worshipped. We worship only the one true God. (Psalm 83:18, KJV)

[The Tanager]

If "god" has the article, it means "God." If there is no article it means that the individual is one of many. There are many gods that men worship, however the Word is one that is acceptable to the true God.

So, in Jn. 1:6, 12, 13; 3:2, 21; 6:45; 8:54; 9:16, 33; 13:3; 16:30; 19:7; 20:17(2); 1 Jn. 3:2; 4:12; 2 Jn. 3, 9; Rev. 21:7, these reference one of many gods instead of God?

[onewithhim]

If "god" has the article, it means "God." If there is no article it means that the individual is one of many. There are many gods that men worship, however the Word is one that is acceptable to the true God.

So, in Jn. 1:6, 12, 13; 3:2, 21; 6:45; 8:54; 9:16, 33; 13:3; 16:30; 19:7; 20:17(2); 1 Jn. 3:2; 4:12; 2 Jn. 3, 9; Rev. 21:7, these reference one of many gods instead of God?

I tried to straighten out what I meant. I didn't word it very well. But I don't understand what you are trying to say in the above post. I think that I might be on the right track if I say that God is THE one of many gods, and he alone is to be worshipped. Those verses are speaking of Jehovah, the one true God.

[The Tanager]

I tried to straighten out what I meant. I didn't word it very well. But I don't understand what you are trying to say in the above post. I think that I might be on the right track if I say that God is THE one of many gods, and he alone is to be worshipped. Those verses are speaking of Jehovah, the one true God.

You seem to be saying that Jesus, the Word is not the one true God, but “one of many”. Is that right? You seem to be basing this on the lack of the article in John 1:1 and read that phrase as “the Word was (one) god (among many)”. Is that right?

If so, then that would also have to be true for all the verses I mentioned, since none of those have an article. They couldn't be speaking about Jehovah if you follow the above. Is that how you interpret those verses?

If you don't follow the above, then could you clarify what you mean?

[onewithhim]

I tried to straighten out what I meant. I didn't word it very well. But I don't understand what you are trying to say in the above post. I think that I might be on the right track if I say that God is THE one of many gods, and he alone is to be worshipped. Those verses are speaking of Jehovah, the one true God.

You seem to be saying that Jesus, the Word is not the one true God, but “one of many”. Is that right? You seem to be basing this on the lack of the article in John 1:1 and read that phrase as “the Word was (one) god (among many)”. Is that right?

If so, then that would also have to be true for all the verses I mentioned, since none of those have an article. They couldn't be speaking about Jehovah if you follow the above. Is that how you interpret those verses?

If you don't follow the above, then could you clarify what you mean?

You have asked a very good question. I will check this out in my Interlinear Bible, and get back to you.

[JehovahsWitness]

So, in Jn. 1:6, 12, 13; 3:2, 21; 6:45; 8:54; 9:16, 33; 13:3; 16:30; 19:7; 20:17(2); 1 Jn. 3:2; 4:12; 2 Jn. 3, 9; Rev. 21:7, these reference one of many gods instead of God?

Strictly speaking YHWH is one of many gods, He is however unequalled amonst his rivals not least because He is the Creator and preceded all that exists, imaginary or real.

As for the use if an article, I don't think we can make a rule along the lines of "definite article =YHWH" ; Zero article =Not YHWH .... nor have I read any Greek scholar make such a suggestion. Which God is being refered to in any biblical text must surely come down to context. Most translation capitalize the G in God to indicate they believe the writer is refering to YHWH (Jehovah) when the personal name is absent. (John 1:1 is simply a passage where in English the verse is somewhat ambiguous and reference to the principles of Greek grammar (grammatical construct) sheds light on the thought the writer was trying to transmit in that particular verse).

For more on Joh 1:1 please see ....

How do various translations render John 1:1 ?
viewtopic.php?p=1111348#p1111348

How should John 1:1 be properly translated?
viewtopic.php?p=1112024#p1112024

[Miles]

So, in Jn. 1:6, 12, 13; 3:2, 21; 6:45; 8:54; 9:16, 33; 13:3; 16:30; 19:7; 20:17(2); 1 Jn. 3:2; 4:12; 2 Jn. 3, 9; Rev. 21:7, these reference one of many gods instead of God?

Strictly speaking YHWH is one of many gods, He is however unequalled amonst his rivals not least because He is the Creator and preceded all that exists, imaginary or real.

Curious as to where this is mentioned in the Bible.

Thanks

[JehovahsWitness]

Strictly speaking YHWH is one of many gods, He is however unequalled amonst his rivals not least because He is the Creator and preceded all that exists, imaginary or real.

Curious as to where this is mentioned in the Bible.

Thanks

This was not a quotation. For direct quotations look out for these little marks "< --- quotation marks ---> ". I will always use them with a source / reference if I am directly quoting scripture.

That said, although the words were my own, the thoughts I expressed are supported in scripture.


- YHWH is one of many gods

1 CORINTHIANS 8:5, 6

For even though there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God, the Father, from whom all things are and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are and we through him.

- He is however unequalled amonst his rivals

ISAIAH 46: 9

Remember the former things of long ago, That I am God, and there is no other. I am God, and there is no one like me

2 SAMUEL 7:22a

That is why you are truly great, O Sovereign Lord Jehovah. There is no one like you [...]

- He is the Creator and preceded all that exists

REVELATION 4:11

“You are worthy, Jehovah our God, to receive the glory and the honor and the power, because you created all things, and because of your will they came into existence and were created