Jesus is God - Acts 20:28

[Wootah]

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... ersion=ESV

28 Pay careful attention to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the church of God, which he obtained with his own blood.

So we are to pay careful attention and care for the church of God, which He obtained with his own blood.

Isn't it clear that God obtained the church with his own blood?

[1213]

...This, however, is not the first time in Scripture where God/Theos are referring to Jesus...

It is interesting how differently we can read it. I think the "he" refers to Jesus, not to God, because:

1) I don't think God would have to purchase something that is His.
2) The previous scriptures are speaking about Jesus and so it seems continuation to that.

[onewithhim]

...
Here’s the verse from the KJV.

28Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Ask yourself this question. Did God purchase the church with His blood?

Have a blessed day!
Kate

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

[Capbook]

...
Here’s the verse from the KJV.

28Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Ask yourself this question. Did God purchase the church with His blood?

Have a blessed day!
Kate

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

[Capbook]

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... ersion=ESV

28 Pay careful attention to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the church of God, which he obtained with his own blood.

So we are to pay careful attention and care for the church of God, which He obtained with his own blood.

Isn't it clear that God obtained the church with his own blood?

As I understand Clarke's commentary, the Church was purchased by the blood of Christ; and as to His Godhead.

Mr. Wakefield, who was a professed and conscientious Unitarian, decides for του Θεου, of God, as the true reading; but, instead of translating του ιδιου αἱματος, with his own blood, he translates, by his own Son, and brings some passages from the Greek and Roman writers to show that αἱμα and sanguis are used to signify son, or near relative; and, were this the only place where purchasing with his own blood occurred, we might receive this saying; but, as the redemption of man is, throughout the New Testament, attributed to the sacrificial death of Christ, it is not likely that this very unusual meaning should apply here. At all events, we have here a proof that the Church was purchased by the blood of Christ; and, as to his Godhead, it is sufficiently established in many other places. When we grant that the greater evidence appears to be in favor of του Κυριου, feed the Church of the Lord, which he has purchased with his own blood, we must maintain that, had not this Lord been God, his blood could have been no purchase for the souls of a lost world. (Adam Clarke's Commentary)

[2timothy316]

...
Here’s the verse from the KJV.

28Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Ask yourself this question. Did God purchase the church with His blood?

Have a blessed day!
Kate

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Ex 7:1

So by your logic Moses is part of the trinity?

[Capbook]

...
Here’s the verse from the KJV.

28Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Ask yourself this question. Did God purchase the church with His blood?

Have a blessed day!
Kate

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Ex 7:1

So by your logic Moses is part of the trinity?

Uppercase G is used in Heb 1:8 and it's the Father that addressed that to Jesus.

[2timothy316]

...
Here’s the verse from the KJV.

28Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Ask yourself this question. Did God purchase the church with His blood?

Have a blessed day!
Kate

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Ex 7:1

So by your logic Moses is part of the trinity?

Uppercase G is used in Heb 1:8 and it's the Father that addressed that to Jesus.

Uppercase didn't exist when the book of Hebrews was written. Uppercase exist when Exodus was written either.

In context of Hebrews 1:9 what do you read? "Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions.” Heb 1:9. Once again, it says Jesus has a God that anoints him. If Jesus was Almighty God already, there would be no need for him to be anointed by his God. How can Jesus who is supposed to be Almighty God already be honored more than his companions? Who are these companions?

What is Heb 1:8 trying to say? Did you know that Hebrews 1:8 is a quote from Pslam 45:6?
"God is your throne forever and evermore; the scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of equity." (The Bible in Living English)
Note the Hebrew text analysis.
https://biblehub.com/text/psalms/45-6.htm

What is God to Jesus? His God is his throne. Or do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too?

[Capbook]

...
Here’s the verse from the KJV.

28Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Ask yourself this question. Did God purchase the church with His blood?

Have a blessed day!
Kate

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Ex 7:1

So by your logic Moses is part of the trinity?

Uppercase G is used in Heb 1:8 and it's the Father that addressed that to Jesus.

Uppercase didn't exist when the book of Hebrews was written. Uppercase exist when Exodus was written either.

In context of Hebrews 1:9 what do you read? "Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions.” Heb 1:9. Once again, it says Jesus has a God that anoints him. If Jesus was Almighty God already, there would be no need for him to be anointed by his God. How can Jesus who is supposed to be Almighty God already be honored more than his companions? Who are these companions?

What is Heb 1:8 trying to say? Did you know that Hebrews 1:8 is a quote from Pslam 45:6?
"God is your throne forever and evermore; the scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of equity." (The Bible in Living English)
Note the Hebrew text analysis.
https://biblehub.com/text/psalms/45-6.htm

What is God to Jesus? His God is his throne. Or do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too?

Hebrews 1:9 "Therefore God, Your God," this phrase proves that Jesus is God.
And to help make your point clear, It should have been " Therefore God, Your Almighty God, has anointed You..." to prove inequality but it proves otherwise.

Peace.

[2timothy316]

...
Here’s the verse from the KJV.

28Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Ask yourself this question. Did God purchase the church with His blood?

Have a blessed day!
Kate

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Ex 7:1

So by your logic Moses is part of the trinity?

Uppercase G is used in Heb 1:8 and it's the Father that addressed that to Jesus.

Uppercase didn't exist when the book of Hebrews was written. Uppercase exist when Exodus was written either.

In context of Hebrews 1:9 what do you read? "Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions.” Heb 1:9. Once again, it says Jesus has a God that anoints him. If Jesus was Almighty God already, there would be no need for him to be anointed by his God. How can Jesus who is supposed to be Almighty God already be honored more than his companions? Who are these companions?

What is Heb 1:8 trying to say? Did you know that Hebrews 1:8 is a quote from Pslam 45:6?
"God is your throne forever and evermore; the scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of equity." (The Bible in Living English)
Note the Hebrew text analysis.
https://biblehub.com/text/psalms/45-6.htm

What is God to Jesus? His God is his throne. Or do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too?

Hebrews 1:9 "Therefore God, Your God," this phrase proves that Jesus is God.
And to help make your point clear, It should have been " Therefore God, Your Almighty God, has anointed You..." to prove inequality but it proves otherwise.

Peace.

You didn't answer my question.
Do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too? And based on your new post, was that Hebrew king spoken of in Ps 45:6 equal to Almighty God too? Did you even read Ps 45:6?

[Capbook]

...
Here’s the verse from the KJV.

28Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Ask yourself this question. Did God purchase the church with His blood?

Have a blessed day!
Kate

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Ex 7:1

So by your logic Moses is part of the trinity?

Uppercase G is used in Heb 1:8 and it's the Father that addressed that to Jesus.

Uppercase didn't exist when the book of Hebrews was written. Uppercase exist when Exodus was written either.

In context of Hebrews 1:9 what do you read? "Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions.” Heb 1:9. Once again, it says Jesus has a God that anoints him. If Jesus was Almighty God already, there would be no need for him to be anointed by his God. How can Jesus who is supposed to be Almighty God already be honored more than his companions? Who are these companions?

What is Heb 1:8 trying to say? Did you know that Hebrews 1:8 is a quote from Pslam 45:6?
"God is your throne forever and evermore; the scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of equity." (The Bible in Living English)
Note the Hebrew text analysis.
https://biblehub.com/text/psalms/45-6.htm

What is God to Jesus? His God is his throne. Or do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too?

Hebrews 1:9 "Therefore God, Your God," this phrase proves that Jesus is God.
And to help make your point clear, It should have been " Therefore God, Your Almighty God, has anointed You..." to prove inequality but it proves otherwise.

Peace.

You didn't answer my question.
Do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too? And based on your new post, was that Hebrew king spoken of in Ps 45:6 equal to Almighty God too? Did you even read Ps 45:6?

The word Elohim in Psa 45:6 name by which the Supreme God has made himself known to the children of men. But Heb 1:8 is applied to Christ. Of which the speaker of the verse is the Father Himself. Yes, they are part of the Trinity.

Thy throne, O God, is for ever - כסאך אלהים עולם ועד kisacha Elohim olam vaed. “O God, thy throne is for ever, and eternal!” The word Elohim here is the very first term or name by which the Supreme God has made himself known to the children of men. See Gen 1:1; and this very verse the apostle, Heb 1:8, has applied to Jesus Christ. On this I shall make a very short remark, but it shall be conclusive: If the apostle did not believe Jesus Christ to be the true and eternal God, he has utterly misapplied this Scripture. (Clarke)