Hebrews 1:10 - Why did Jehovah address His Son as Lord?

[MissKate13]

Why did Jehovah address His Son as Lord?

The Greek term for Lord is kyrie. It is defined as master. Why would YHWH refer to His Son, Jesus, as master?

10 And: “At the beginning, O Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the works of your hands. (Hebrews 1:10 NWT)


And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands: (Hebrews 1:10 KJV)

[MissKate13]

That doesn't make Jesus lord over Jehovah.

Remember in that same chapter you're quoting it ends with, "But about which of the angels has he ever said: “Sit at my right hand until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet?" Who is sitting on who's right hand?
Hebrews 1:4,6 says, "So he has become better than the angels to the extent that he has inherited a name more excellent than theirs...And let all of God’s angels do obeisance to him.” These are the ones Jesus is name Lord over. There is no mention that Jesus became Lord over Jehovah.

If Jesus was God why would Jesus ever need to 'become better than the angels'? As God, wouldn't he already be better?

I have not suggested that Jesus is Lord over Jehovah. It is a fact, however, that God is addressing the Son as Lord in Hebrews 1:10. Can we agree on this much?

The quote below is from the New World Translation.

And: “At the beginning, O Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the works of your hands.”(Hebrews 1:10 NWT)

To answer your second question, “Who is sitting at who’s right hand?” Jesus is sitting at God’s right hand.

You asked, “Why would Jesus ever need to become better than the angels?” I would point out that Hebrews 1:4 does not say Jesus “needed” to become better than the angels. We know from 1:3 that Jesus was the brightness of God’s glory and the exact imprint of His nature. Keep in mind all things were created through Jesus. All things includes angels.

The author is simply trying to show his readers that Jesus was so much better than the angels. He is showing the superiority of Christ over angels. First century Jews were fascinated with angels, and held them in high esteem.

I hope I’ve answered your questions. I would appreciate you answering my question from paragraph 1.

Be blessed,
Kate

[2timothy316]

That doesn't make Jesus lord over Jehovah.

Remember in that same chapter you're quoting it ends with, "But about which of the angels has he ever said: “Sit at my right hand until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet?" Who is sitting on who's right hand?
Hebrews 1:4,6 says, "So he has become better than the angels to the extent that he has inherited a name more excellent than theirs...And let all of God’s angels do obeisance to him.” These are the ones Jesus is name Lord over. There is no mention that Jesus became Lord over Jehovah.

If Jesus was God why would Jesus ever need to 'become better than the angels'? As God, wouldn't he already be better?

Jesus doesn't lord over the Father as they are equal.

This sentence makes no sense when compared to Hebrews 1:4, "So he has become better than the angels to the extent that he has inherited a name more excellent than theirs."

He can't be greater, equal to and lower than an angel.

I believe JFB means Jesus in human nature is lower than the angel.Heb 2:9.
To the Father they are equal. Word "Lord" in Heb 1:10.
Lexicon definition of Lord below;

Heb 1:10 - NT:2962 Kurios (a title for God and for Christ) one who exercises supernatural authority over mankind.
Hebrews 2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.(NIV)

So God can die and Jesus before his death wasn't even equal to an angel? There was a time when he wasn't lord? How can that be possible and still jive with a doctrine that claims that Jesus is equal to his father?

We believe in the dual nature of Jesus. What died was His human nature (flesh). 1 Peter 3:18
Jesus take back His life (resurrected) His divine nature, equal with the Father. John 10:17-18.

1 Peter 3:18
For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit,(NKJV)
John 10:17-18
"Therefore My Father loves Me, because I lay down My life that I may take it again. No one takes it from Me, but I lay it down of Myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This command I have received from My Father."(NKJV)

I reviewed the exchanges, I believe you haven't replied with this post.

If Christ didn't actually die then the ransom hasn't been paid. The words dual nature appear nowhere in the Bible. There is no indication there are two Christs. Ecc 9:5 gives the condition of the dead. If the person of who Jesus is didn't suffer the condition at Ecc 9:5 then mankind is doomed to die from sin.

For someone to be 'made alive' what does condition did they come from? He died as a man was dead for parts of 3 days then made alive as a spirit. No part of Jesus was alive during those 3 days because there isn't 2 Jesus'.

This is why the teaching of an eternal soul is not compatible with the Bible at all. A person is either a fleshly person or a spirit person. They can't be both. A person with brain damage where parts of the brain of died what does that mean for the so-called spirit part of the person? Where is the person? In their spirit part or their fleshly part? Is there an angel somewhere with the 'dead' part of the fleshly brain?