Thorn's in a rose bush

[placebofactor]

Can anyone ever explain how the Father can exist without having a beginning? Let me answer the question, NO! It doesn't make sense as men understand things, but God's ways are not our ways.

Question 2: Can anyone explain how Jesus existed without having a beginning? The same answer: NO! My Bible states that the Word, Jesus Christ, was WITH the Father before the creation, and the Word (Jesus) was God.

Revelation 13:8, "And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world."

Decreed before the creation. Sinners, unbelievers and deniers, who remain on the earth in contrast to those in heaven shall worship the Lamb. It's the Lamb's book of life, not the Father's. So, it's the Lamb, Jesus Christ who will be worshipped.

In the counsel of the Godhead, the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, declared Jesus Christ to be a "Lamb slain before the foundation of the world."

Because the Watchtower decided to corrupt John 1:1, and with great sorrow I say, millions have swallowed that lie hook line and sinker, and they continue to draw people away from the Lord Jesus Christ. It’s with their corrupted verse from a corrupted Bible, claiming, "The Word was a god." The only Bible in the world that makes Jesus Christ a god, except for 1 or 2 versions no one has ever seen or heard of.

2000 years of history denied by a group who came out of the woodwork 125 years ago. A group rejected by every mainline Christian church and organization throughout the World. But they do have bedfellows, Mormons, and Muslims who also claim Jesus is not God. They say, "He's a good man, a prophet, a god, maybe; but surely not "God."

Jehovah's Witnesses won’t admit their own Bible calls Jesus Jehovah in, Luke 2:11, "Which is Christ the Lord." Interpreted is, the Messiah is Jehovah." N.W.T. footnotes on Luke 2:11, 1984 edition. "Christ (the) Lord." Greek, Khristos' Kyrios. This expression might be a Greek rendering of the Hebrew ma-shi'ach Yeho-wah'. But they had to add, "Jehovah's Christ."

I love it, they say it "MIGHT BE!" What does "it might be" mean? It is, or it isn't. Dishonest to the core.

Another of their deceptions.
Jesus said in Revelation 1:8, "I am alpha and omega, the beginning and the end, the Almighty." Again, the corrupt Watchtower organization claims these words apply only to the Father. Wrong! Jesus is speaking and uses the pronoun "I" not my Father is.

Here's another one concerning the Holy Spirit. The pronoun "He" does not mean "He" to a Jehovah's Witness, "He" means "It". The Holy Spirit is not "he", but an "it," the breath of the Father.

In John 15:26, concerning the Holy Spirit they changed "he" to "that one”. They did the same thing in John 14:26. In John 14:17, speaking of the Holy Spirit, they changed "him" to "it."

Paul said, 2 Corinthians 11:10, "Christ is in me," not the Father is in me.
Verse 13, "For such are false apostles, deceitful workers, transforming themselves into the apostles of Christ.

Paul said Philippians 1:13, "My bonds in Christ are manifest in all the palace, and in all other places." He didn't say "My bonds in the Father are manifest---."

Philippians 1:1, to all the saints in Christ Jesus." Not the saints in the Father."

Believers are the Bride of Christ, not the bride of the Father.

Ephesians 1:1, "Paul, and apostle of Jesus Christ by the word of God (theos)." By the will of God, hmmm! Jesus is the Word, and in Acts 8, it was the will of the Lord Jesus that made Paul tremble. It was the Lord Jesus who told Paul to arise. It was the Lord Jesus who said concerning Paul, “He is a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel: for I will shew him how great things he must suffer for my names sake.” Nothing there about the Father.

And what name would that be? It’s Jesus, who is Jehovah, all to the glory of his Father who is also Jehovah.

[onewithhim]

Can anyone ever explain how the Father can exist without having a beginning?

Many can explain, but how would we know the explanation is correct? Bible doesn't say how it is possible.

...They say, "He's a good man..."

Also Paul says so.

For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
1 Tim. 2:5

Should people believe Paul or you?

We believe apostle Paul that says;
1. There is one God,
2. Jesus is man,
3. What we need is verse that says, Jesus is not God.

Jesus said that he is God's Son, therefore skewering the idea that he is God. It's very plain. He said, "I am God's Son." How can God be his own Son? (John 10:36)

Yes, but it does not say Jesus is not God.
NASB is not a paraphrase translation, rendered John 1:18 Jesus the only begotten God, had seen the Father.

Jhn 1:18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him. (NASB)

It doesn't say that Jesus is not a spotted leopard either. Does that make him one?

Interlinear Bible by Hendrickson: "...the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he reveals Him."

Many translate like that but mostly are paraphrased translations, I will post translations that tried to maintain the highest degree of accuracy to the original languages, see below;

(ESV) No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known.
(Literal Standard Version)No one has ever seen God; the only begotten God who is on the bosom of the FatherHe has expounded Him.
(Updated ASV+) No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God N7  who is in the bosom of the Father, N8  that one has made him fully known.
(Berean Study Bible) No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is Himself God and is at the Father’s side, has made Him known.
(NRSV Updated Edition) No one has ever seen God. It is the only Son, himself God, who is close to the Father’s heart, who has made him known.
(NASB95) No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.
(Greek NT Wescott & Hort+) θεον G2316 N-ASM  ουδεις G3762 A-NSM-N  εωρακεν G3708 V-RAI-3S-ATT  πωποτε G4455 ADV  μονογενης G3439 A-NSM  θεος G2316 N-NSM  ο G3588 T-NSM  ων G1510 V-PAP-NSM  εις G1519 PREP  τον G3588 T-ASM  κολπον G2859 N-ASM  του G3588 T-GSM  πατρος G3962 N-GSM  εκεινος G1565 D-NSM  εξηγησατο G1834 V-ADI-3S 

I can name an equal amount of versions that say the only begotten SON has explained the Father. Your NRSV Updated Edition and Berean Study Bible have added words to the verse. "Himself God" is not in the original Greek rendering. Those words are added, according to someone's conclusions, being biased trinitarians.

Yes, you may but mostly would be paraphrase translations.

No they are not paraphrased translations. You could say your ESV and the NRSV Updated edition are paraphrased translations.

[1213]

Yes, but how about the phrase "and this life is in His Son," is the Father wrong He says that?

I think it is the John who says it. But, I think it is correct and I think it means because of Jesus, they have the life.

[Capbook]

Yes, but how about the phrase "and this life is in His Son," is the Father wrong He says that?

I think it is the John who says it. But, I think it is correct and I think it means because of Jesus, they have the life.

Jesus have said, I am the way, the truth and the life. Jesus said "I" and you said "they". Do you not believe Jesus in this verse?
And confirm by the Father that the life is in His Son in 1 John 5:11.
If you do not believe that Jesus has that eternal life in 1 John 5:20. (a repeat of Jesus statement on my first line.)
Can we not be liable to 2 John 1:9? Which says; "Anyone who goes too far and does not remain in the teaching of Christ, does not have God; the one who remains in the teaching has both the Father and the Son".

[onewithhim]

Yes, but how about the phrase "and this life is in His Son," is the Father wrong He says that?

I think it is the John who says it. But, I think it is correct and I think it means because of Jesus, they have the life.

Jesus have said, I am the way, the truth and the life. Jesus said "I" and you said "they". Do you not believe Jesus in this verse?
And confirm by the Father that the life is in His Son in 1 John 5:11.
If you do not believe that Jesus has that eternal life in 1 John 5:20. (a repeat of Jesus statement on my first line.)
Can we not be liable to 2 John 1:9? Which says; "Anyone who goes too far and does not remain in the teaching of Christ, does not have God; the one who remains in the teaching has both the Father and the Son".

"They" is referring to all people who put their trust in Jesus' sacrifice.

[Capbook]

Yes, but how about the phrase "and this life is in His Son," is the Father wrong He says that?

I think it is the John who says it. But, I think it is correct and I think it means because of Jesus, they have the life.

Jesus have said, I am the way, the truth and the life. Jesus said "I" and you said "they". Do you not believe Jesus in this verse?
And confirm by the Father that the life is in His Son in 1 John 5:11.
If you do not believe that Jesus has that eternal life in 1 John 5:20. (a repeat of Jesus statement on my first line.)
Can we not be liable to 2 John 1:9? Which says; "Anyone who goes too far and does not remain in the teaching of Christ, does not have God; the one who remains in the teaching has both the Father and the Son".

"They" is referring to all people who put their trust in Jesus' sacrifice.

So, does that mean that you've gone too far and does not remain in the teaching of Christ, when He said, I am the way the truth and the life? My point is the "I" about what Jesus had said.

2Jn 1:9 Anyone who goes too far and does not abide in the teaching of Christ, does not have God; the one who abides in the teaching, he has both the Father and the Son.

[1213]

Jesus have said, I am the way, the truth and the life. Jesus said "I" and you said "they". Do you not believe Jesus in this verse?

I believe what Jesus says in the Bible.

And confirm by the Father that the life is in His Son in 1 John 5:11.

I don't think it is the Father who says that. It is the witness who says it.

And this is the witness: that God gave us everlasting life, and this life is in His Son.
1 John 5:11

But, obviously the that doesn't make the message itself wrong. God has given everlasting life, and it comes through Jesus.

[Capbook]

Jesus have said, I am the way, the truth and the life. Jesus said "I" and you said "they". Do you not believe Jesus in this verse?

I believe what Jesus says in the Bible.

And confirm by the Father that the life is in His Son in 1 John 5:11.

I don't think it is the Father who says that. It is the witness who says it.

And this is the witness: that God gave us everlasting life, and this life is in His Son.
1 John 5:11

But, obviously the that doesn't make the message itself wrong. God has given everlasting life, and it comes through Jesus.

Good, so, we will experience eternal life through Jesus in 1 John 5:20?

(NASB) And the testimony is this, that God has given us eternal life, and this life is in His Son.

[onewithhim]

Yes, but how about the phrase "and this life is in His Son," is the Father wrong He says that?

I think it is the John who says it. But, I think it is correct and I think it means because of Jesus, they have the life.

Jesus have said, I am the way, the truth and the life. Jesus said "I" and you said "they". Do you not believe Jesus in this verse?
And confirm by the Father that the life is in His Son in 1 John 5:11.
If you do not believe that Jesus has that eternal life in 1 John 5:20. (a repeat of Jesus statement on my first line.)
Can we not be liable to 2 John 1:9? Which says; "Anyone who goes too far and does not remain in the teaching of Christ, does not have God; the one who remains in the teaching has both the Father and the Son".

"They" is referring to all people who put their trust in Jesus' sacrifice.

So, does that mean that you've gone too far and does not remain in the teaching of Christ, when He said, I am the way the truth and the life? My point is the "I" about what Jesus had said.

2Jn 1:9 Anyone who goes too far and does not abide in the teaching of Christ, does not have God; the one who abides in the teaching, he has both the Father and the Son.

Please be clearer. I don't understand what you're saying regarding the "I."

[Capbook]

Can anyone ever explain how the Father can exist without having a beginning?

Many can explain, but how would we know the explanation is correct? Bible doesn't say how it is possible.

...They say, "He's a good man..."

Also Paul says so.

For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
1 Tim. 2:5

Should people believe Paul or you?

We believe apostle Paul that says;
1. There is one God,
2. Jesus is man,
3. What we need is verse that says, Jesus is not God.

Jesus said that he is God's Son, therefore skewering the idea that he is God. It's very plain. He said, "I am God's Son." How can God be his own Son? (John 10:36)

Yes, but it does not say Jesus is not God.
NASB is not a paraphrase translation, rendered John 1:18 Jesus the only begotten God, had seen the Father.

Jhn 1:18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him. (NASB)

It doesn't say that Jesus is not a spotted leopard either. Does that make him one?

Interlinear Bible by Hendrickson: "...the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he reveals Him."

Many translate like that but mostly are paraphrased translations, I will post translations that tried to maintain the highest degree of accuracy to the original languages, see below;

(ESV) No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known.
(Literal Standard Version)No one has ever seen God; the only begotten God who is on the bosom of the FatherHe has expounded Him.
(Updated ASV+) No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God N7  who is in the bosom of the Father, N8  that one has made him fully known.
(Berean Study Bible) No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is Himself God and is at the Father’s side, has made Him known.
(NRSV Updated Edition) No one has ever seen God. It is the only Son, himself God, who is close to the Father’s heart, who has made him known.
(NASB95) No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.
(Greek NT Wescott & Hort+) θεον G2316 N-ASM  ουδεις G3762 A-NSM-N  εωρακεν G3708 V-RAI-3S-ATT  πωποτε G4455 ADV  μονογενης G3439 A-NSM  θεος G2316 N-NSM  ο G3588 T-NSM  ων G1510 V-PAP-NSM  εις G1519 PREP  τον G3588 T-ASM  κολπον G2859 N-ASM  του G3588 T-GSM  πατρος G3962 N-GSM  εκεινος G1565 D-NSM  εξηγησατο G1834 V-ADI-3S 

I can name an equal amount of versions that say the only begotten SON has explained the Father. Your NRSV Updated Edition and Berean Study Bible have added words to the verse. "Himself God" is not in the original Greek rendering. Those words are added, according to someone's conclusions, being biased trinitarians.

Yes, you may but mostly would be paraphrase translations.

No they are not paraphrased translations. You could say your ESV and the NRSV Updated edition are paraphrased translations.

You have not posted any of you've said equal amount of versions that say the only begotten Son, but any way it is labelled as "various readings," and not from original Greek wording. Updated ASV+ (N7) provide proof from P66, P75 (papyri) and etc, that the original words were "μονογενὴς θεός or ο μονογενης θεος" as only-begotten God or the only-begotten God.

[color=#0000FF]N7[/color] John 1:18 (UASV+)
The original words were μονογενὴς θεός or ο μονογενης θεος “only-begotten God” or “the only-begotten God” (P66 P75 א B C* L 33 syrhmp 33 copbo) A variant reading is ο μονογενης υιος “the only begotten Son” A C3 (Ws) Θ Ψ f1, Maj syrc).

[onewithhim]

Many translate like that but mostly are paraphrased translations, I will post translations that tried to maintain the highest degree of accuracy to the original languages, see below;

(ESV) No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known.
(Literal Standard Version)No one has ever seen God; the only begotten God who is on the bosom of the FatherHe has expounded Him.
(Updated ASV+) No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God N7  who is in the bosom of the Father, N8  that one has made him fully known.
(Berean Study Bible) No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is Himself God and is at the Father’s side, has made Him known.
(NRSV Updated Edition) No one has ever seen God. It is the only Son, himself God, who is close to the Father’s heart, who has made him known.
(NASB95) No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.
(Greek NT Wescott & Hort+) θεον G2316 N-ASM  ουδεις G3762 A-NSM-N  εωρακεν G3708 V-RAI-3S-ATT  πωποτε G4455 ADV  μονογενης G3439 A-NSM  θεος G2316 N-NSM  ο G3588 T-NSM  ων G1510 V-PAP-NSM  εις G1519 PREP  τον G3588 T-ASM  κολπον G2859 N-ASM  του G3588 T-GSM  πατρος G3962 N-GSM  εκεινος G1565 D-NSM  εξηγησατο G1834 V-ADI-3S 

I can name an equal amount of versions that say the only begotten SON has explained the Father. Your NRSV Updated Edition and Berean Study Bible have added words to the verse. "Himself God" is not in the original Greek rendering. Those words are added, according to someone's conclusions, being biased trinitarians.

Yes, you may but mostly would be paraphrase translations.

No they are not paraphrased translations. You could say your ESV and the NRSV Updated edition are paraphrased translations.

You have not posted any of you've said equal amount of versions that say the only begotten Son, but any way it is labelled as "various readings," and not from original Greek wording. Updated ASV+ (N7) provide proof from P66, P75 (papyri) and etc, that the original words were "μονογενὴς θεός or ο μονογενης θεος" as only-begotten God or the only-begotten God.

I have, I thought, posted many versions that say "the only-begotten Son," the King James being one of them, the American Standard Version being another, and there are many more, as I will post here (again?) It is from the original Greek wording. Those who say "only begotten God" are adding their own opinions. Your Biblical sources are definitely paraphrased, having added words according to the translator's bias. Later.