WHAT WAS THE REQUIREMENT FOR CHRIST TO BE DECLARED THE SON OF GOD?

[Eddie Ramos]

The Bible tells us that Christ was declared to be the Son of God after completing one specific task, after raising from the dead.

Romans 1:4 (KJV 1900)
And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by (meaning THROUGH) the resurrection from the dead:

This passage is extremely interesting because we notice that Christ was declared to be the Son of God even from his conception as recorded in the gospels.

Luke 1:35 (KJV 1900)
And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

Mark 9:7 (KJV 1900)
And there was a cloud that overshadowed them: and a voice came out of the cloud, saying, This is my beloved Son: hear him.

Over and over, we see many passages that declare Christ to be the Son of God, but the problem is that if we look to the cross as the only time Christ died and rose again, the he had not yet died nor rose again, yet here he is, being declared to be the Son of God before his death and resurrection. But this is not a problem is we can see that Christ died and rose again from the foundation of the world to pay for sins. Now, at any time throughout the course of the history of the world, Christ could be rightfully declared to be the son of God before the cross of 33 A.D. and we still have perfect harmony with the scriptures.

For those who disagree that Christ died and rose again from the foundation of the world, then the discussion for the O.P. is, can you show from the scriptures how could Christ be declared to be the Son of God, by the resurrection from the dead, if he hadn't died nor rose again till 33 A.D. and yet was indeed declared to be the Son of God throughout his earthly ministry?

[Eddie Ramos]

[1213]

Why God required it?

Please show a scripture where God requires blood, for to forgive?

[onewithhim]

I think it is not a problem, because children of God can be known by this:

He who does righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. To this end the Son of God was revealed, that he might destroy the works of the devil. Whoever is born of God doesn't commit sin, because his seed remains in him; and he can't sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are revealed, and the children of the devil. Whoever doesn't do righteousness is not of God, neither is he who doesn't love his brother.
1 John 3:7-10

Thanks for the scriptures, but I'm not sure I follow your train of thought with that passage you posted. I see that it's speaking of the children of God and about the Son of God (Christ) and the reason he was revealed (or manifested). When something is "manifested", it's able to be seen. And when it came to Christ, since he died and rose again before anyone even existed, then no ne was here to witness what took place. This is one reason God manifested what he had already accomplished before the world began in Christ.
This passage helps us to understand how God defines the word "manifested" (or "revealed").

1 John 1:2 (KJV 1900)
(For the life (this is Christ, who is the way, the truth and the life) was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life (this again is Christ), which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us)

But before he was manifested, he already died and rose again to pay for sins, and when he arose from the dead, he was declared to be the Son of God. Then the Son of God created the world and at anytime throughout the world's existence, God could forgive the sins of anyone he chose to do so, because all the requirements for forgiveness had been met by Christ. So, when the time came for Christ to be made manifest in the form of a baby, he was already declared to be the Son of God because he had already died and rose from the dead, and was the first to do so (Rev 1:5).

If I misunderstood the point of your reply, then please let me know.

It is imperative to understand just when "the founding of the world" took place. It is not the creation of the planet. The "world" is the same as at IJohn 2:15-17. It is the people who deliberately turn away from worshiping Jehovah, just as Adam and Eve and Cain did, that are considered "the world." The world alienated from God will be eliminated forever....all the people who are willfully evil. No more "world."

"Do not be loving either the world or the things in the world....The world is passing away...but he that does the will of God remains forever." (IJohn 2:15-17) So can't we now say that Jesus was chosen to die for mankind in between the time of Adam's denial of Jehovah's right to rule and the time that Cain killed his brother (the foundation of the world)?

Do you get the difference? The "world" is not the planet. It is the world of humans alienated from God, as I John brings out. That is my $.02

[Eddie Ramos]

[Eddie Ramos]

[1213]

[Eddie Ramos]

[1213]

[JehovahsWitness]

. It is possible to forgive without blood, as shown in here:

You shouldn't confuse Forgiving (overlooking an offesne) with the atonement for adamic sin.

[Eddie Ramos]