No man has seen God at any time

[Stewardofthemystery]

It is written in John 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”

And Jesus said in John 14:6-7
King James Version
6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.”

So if no man has seen God at any time, how do we reconcile what seems to be a contradiction? When you understand the identity of the Son of God being the very Word of God, then you will understand there is no contradiction.

It is the Word OF God that was made flesh in the man Jesus. And it is BY God’s Word and words that we get to know and see what God the Father is really like, His likes and dislikes. It is by God’s Word and words we get to see and know the will of God the Father.

In this way, by looking at the words and actions of Jesus Christ we get to see and know what The invisible God is really like.

We don’t see the outward image of God in Christ, but rather we see the inward image of God in Jesus Christ, as God was in Christ.

Colossians 1:15
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

When you understand this mystery then there is a harmony to the text without contradiction.

Peace and God bless

[Capbook]

The last His in the verse is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God and eternal life

That's right. It refers to God, the Father.

The original Greek text is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this ONE is the true God and eternal life.
Please see below "one" in bold red color.
That sure did refer to Jesus as the true God.

No, it is "this One" who is the Father of Jesus. HIS Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God. The One referred to as "his." It's like replacing the pronoun with the name of the Father of the Son: Jehovah's Son Jesus Christ, this One is the true God. A person looking at this might get the impression that it speaks of Jesus as the "true God," but it can just as feasibly mean that it is the Father that is the true God. My view of this verse is just as compelling as your view. So which view do we side with? We look at all of the thousands of passages that refer to Jehovah the Father as the true God. Jesus himself called his Father that (John 17:3).

God the Father had been referred as "the one" and Jesus Christ as "this one" the true God and life eternal.
I think you would also understand that "the" referred to someone that is far from the speaker. (Father as in heaven)
While "this" refer to what is near and also the nearest antecedent in the original Greek text, whom to this case is Jesus.


1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.

You pick out a verse here and there---very few---that seem to you to refer to Jesus as God. We must look at all the other verses in the Scriptures that tell us differently, and there are hundreds. What did Jesus mean by saying to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"? (John 20:17)

Do you ran out of reason without evidence denying Jesus as true God in 1 John 5:20?
That would be a big hurdle for Christians to experience eternal life by not knowing what truly Jesus is. (John 17:3)
Jesus humbled himself though He possessed the state of being God. Even would mean as His property.(Phil 2:6)
As Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek as "huparchonta" as possessions, property, etc.
If you rebut, please post evidence (original Greek text), not just explanations from bias translations.

Once again you have not answered my direct question. What did Jesus mean when he said to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"?

Being then in human nature Jesus humbled himself, obedient to the Father even the death of the cross.(Phil 2:8)
And even the Father called Jesus God in Psalms 45:6, whom Jews interpret it the word "God" as referred to their Messiah.
Jews were the people of God in the OT and it is in their time that they understand it what it mean, why you won't believe them and make your own interpretation? (Psa 45:6, Rev 1:8)

Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross

Why would we think that Jesus is God when he had to be obedient to God? If he was God he wouldn't have to answer to anyone.
Psalm 45:6 does not say that Jesus is God. You do not consider the Jews' actual rendition of this. They say: "Your divine throne is everlasting; your royal scepter is a scepter of equity." And further: "You love righteousness and hate wickedness; rightly has God, your God chosen to anoint you with oil of gladness over all your peers."

That is the translation found in The Tanahk/ The new JPS Translation according to the traditional Hebrew Text. This rendering is what the writer of Hebrews was referring to, and it doesn't say "Your throne O God..."

You are making your own interpretation, based on biased renderings from your lexicons. Look at what the Jews are writing themselves. Why don't you believe them?

In the Hebrew Tanakh the verse 6 is found in verse 7 with Strong Numbers and it doesn't say what your your translation interpret.
See the the meaning of every word, it is not "your divine throne."
Hebrew word "kisseh"(H3678) is throne,
And next Hebrew word "elohiym"(H430) is true God, God etc.
Show here your original Hebrew text as you claim so we could compare.

H3678 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
כּסּה / כּסּא
kissê' / kissêh
BDB Definition:
1) seat (of honour), throne, seat, stool
1a) seat (of honour), throne
1b) royal dignity, authority, power (figuratively)

H430 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
אלהים
'ĕlôhı̂ym
BDB Definition:
1) (plural)
1a) rulers, judges
1b) divine ones
1c) angels
1d) gods
2) (plural intensive - singular meaning)
2a) god, goddess
2b) godlike one
2c) works or special possessions of God
2d) the (true) God
2e) God

Psa 45:7 כסאך H3678  אלהים H430  עולם H5769  ועד H5703  שׁבט H7626  מישׁר H4334  שׁבט H7626  מלכותך׃ H4438 

Psa 45:7 כסאך אלהים עולם ועד שׁבט מישׁר שׁבט מלכותך׃

[onewithhim]

That's right. It refers to God, the Father.

The original Greek text is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this ONE is the true God and eternal life.
Please see below "one" in bold red color.
That sure did refer to Jesus as the true God.

No, it is "this One" who is the Father of Jesus. HIS Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God. The One referred to as "his." It's like replacing the pronoun with the name of the Father of the Son: Jehovah's Son Jesus Christ, this One is the true God. A person looking at this might get the impression that it speaks of Jesus as the "true God," but it can just as feasibly mean that it is the Father that is the true God. My view of this verse is just as compelling as your view. So which view do we side with? We look at all of the thousands of passages that refer to Jehovah the Father as the true God. Jesus himself called his Father that (John 17:3).

God the Father had been referred as "the one" and Jesus Christ as "this one" the true God and life eternal.
I think you would also understand that "the" referred to someone that is far from the speaker. (Father as in heaven)
While "this" refer to what is near and also the nearest antecedent in the original Greek text, whom to this case is Jesus.


1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.

You pick out a verse here and there---very few---that seem to you to refer to Jesus as God. We must look at all the other verses in the Scriptures that tell us differently, and there are hundreds. What did Jesus mean by saying to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"? (John 20:17)

Do you ran out of reason without evidence denying Jesus as true God in 1 John 5:20?
That would be a big hurdle for Christians to experience eternal life by not knowing what truly Jesus is. (John 17:3)
Jesus humbled himself though He possessed the state of being God. Even would mean as His property.(Phil 2:6)
As Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek as "huparchonta" as possessions, property, etc.
If you rebut, please post evidence (original Greek text), not just explanations from bias translations.

Once again you have not answered my direct question. What did Jesus mean when he said to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"?

Being then in human nature Jesus humbled himself, obedient to the Father even the death of the cross.(Phil 2:8)
And even the Father called Jesus God in Psalms 45:6, whom Jews interpret it the word "God" as referred to their Messiah.
Jews were the people of God in the OT and it is in their time that they understand it what it mean, why you won't believe them and make your own interpretation? (Psa 45:6, Rev 1:8)

Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross

Why would we think that Jesus is God when he had to be obedient to God? If he was God he wouldn't have to answer to anyone.
Psalm 45:6 does not say that Jesus is God. You do not consider the Jews' actual rendition of this. They say: "Your divine throne is everlasting; your royal scepter is a scepter of equity." And further: "You love righteousness and hate wickedness; rightly has God, your God chosen to anoint you with oil of gladness over all your peers."

That is the translation found in The Tanahk/ The new JPS Translation according to the traditional Hebrew Text. This rendering is what the writer of Hebrews was referring to, and it doesn't say "Your throne O God..."

You are making your own interpretation, based on biased renderings from your lexicons. Look at what the Jews are writing themselves. Why don't you believe them?

In the Hebrew Tanakh the verse 6 is found in verse 7 with Strong Numbers and it doesn't say what your your translation interpret.
See the the meaning of every word, it is not "your divine throne."
Hebrew word "kisseh"(H3678) is throne,
And next Hebrew word "elohiym"(H430) is true God, God etc.
Show here your original Hebrew text as you claim so we could compare.

H3678 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
כּסּה / כּסּא
kissê' / kissêh
BDB Definition:
1) seat (of honour), throne, seat, stool
1a) seat (of honour), throne
1b) royal dignity, authority, power (figuratively)

There is nothing in your references here that contradict what the Jews wrote in their own Scriptures. They see the meaning as: "Your divine throne is everlasting."

[Capbook]

The original Greek text is, "His Son Jesus Christ, this ONE is the true God and eternal life.
Please see below "one" in bold red color.
That sure did refer to Jesus as the true God.

No, it is "this One" who is the Father of Jesus. HIS Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God. The One referred to as "his." It's like replacing the pronoun with the name of the Father of the Son: Jehovah's Son Jesus Christ, this One is the true God. A person looking at this might get the impression that it speaks of Jesus as the "true God," but it can just as feasibly mean that it is the Father that is the true God. My view of this verse is just as compelling as your view. So which view do we side with? We look at all of the thousands of passages that refer to Jehovah the Father as the true God. Jesus himself called his Father that (John 17:3).

God the Father had been referred as "the one" and Jesus Christ as "this one" the true God and life eternal.
I think you would also understand that "the" referred to someone that is far from the speaker. (Father as in heaven)
While "this" refer to what is near and also the nearest antecedent in the original Greek text, whom to this case is Jesus.


1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.

You pick out a verse here and there---very few---that seem to you to refer to Jesus as God. We must look at all the other verses in the Scriptures that tell us differently, and there are hundreds. What did Jesus mean by saying to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"? (John 20:17)

Do you ran out of reason without evidence denying Jesus as true God in 1 John 5:20?
That would be a big hurdle for Christians to experience eternal life by not knowing what truly Jesus is. (John 17:3)
Jesus humbled himself though He possessed the state of being God. Even would mean as His property.(Phil 2:6)
As Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek as "huparchonta" as possessions, property, etc.
If you rebut, please post evidence (original Greek text), not just explanations from bias translations.

Once again you have not answered my direct question. What did Jesus mean when he said to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"?

Being then in human nature Jesus humbled himself, obedient to the Father even the death of the cross.(Phil 2:8)
And even the Father called Jesus God in Psalms 45:6, whom Jews interpret it the word "God" as referred to their Messiah.
Jews were the people of God in the OT and it is in their time that they understand it what it mean, why you won't believe them and make your own interpretation? (Psa 45:6, Rev 1:8)

Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross

Why would we think that Jesus is God when he had to be obedient to God? If he was God he wouldn't have to answer to anyone.
Psalm 45:6 does not say that Jesus is God. You do not consider the Jews' actual rendition of this. They say: "Your divine throne is everlasting; your royal scepter is a scepter of equity." And further: "You love righteousness and hate wickedness; rightly has God, your God chosen to anoint you with oil of gladness over all your peers."

That is the translation found in The Tanahk/ The new JPS Translation according to the traditional Hebrew Text. This rendering is what the writer of Hebrews was referring to, and it doesn't say "Your throne O God..."

You are making your own interpretation, based on biased renderings from your lexicons. Look at what the Jews are writing themselves. Why don't you believe them?

In the Hebrew Tanakh the verse 6 is found in verse 7 with Strong Numbers and it doesn't say what your your translation interpret.
See the the meaning of every word, it is not "your divine throne."
Hebrew word "kisseh"(H3678) is throne,
And next Hebrew word "elohiym"(H430) is true God, God etc.
Show here your original Hebrew text as you claim so we could compare.

H3678 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
כּסּה / כּסּא
kissê' / kissêh
BDB Definition:
1) seat (of honour), throne, seat, stool
1a) seat (of honour), throne
1b) royal dignity, authority, power (figuratively)

There is nothing in your references here that contradict what the Jews wrote in their own Scriptures. They see the meaning as: "Your divine throne is everlasting."

Why cut the original Hebrew text in your reply that proves that your translation is wrong?
The word "divine" as you claim is not there but "God" elohiym.
You may post your original Hebrew source here so we could compare.

H3678 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
כּסּה / כּסּא
kissê' / kissêh
BDB Definition:
1) seat (of honour), throne, seat, stool
1a) seat (of honour), throne
1b) royal dignity, authority, power (figuratively)

H430 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
אלהים
'ĕlôhı̂ym
BDB Definition:
1) (plural)
1a) rulers, judges
1b) divine ones
1c) angels
1d) gods
2) (plural intensive - singular meaning)
2a) god, goddess
2b) godlike one
2c) works or special possessions of God
2d) the (true) God
2e) God

Psa 45:7 כסאך H3678  אלהים H430  עולם H5769  ועד H5703  שׁבט H7626  מישׁר H4334  שׁבט H7626  מלכותך׃ H4438 

Psa 45:7 כסאך אלהים עולם ועד שׁבט מישׁר שׁבט מלכותך׃

[onewithhim]

No, it is "this One" who is the Father of Jesus. HIS Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God. The One referred to as "his." It's like replacing the pronoun with the name of the Father of the Son: Jehovah's Son Jesus Christ, this One is the true God. A person looking at this might get the impression that it speaks of Jesus as the "true God," but it can just as feasibly mean that it is the Father that is the true God. My view of this verse is just as compelling as your view. So which view do we side with? We look at all of the thousands of passages that refer to Jehovah the Father as the true God. Jesus himself called his Father that (John 17:3).

God the Father had been referred as "the one" and Jesus Christ as "this one" the true God and life eternal.
I think you would also understand that "the" referred to someone that is far from the speaker. (Father as in heaven)
While "this" refer to what is near and also the nearest antecedent in the original Greek text, whom to this case is Jesus.


1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.

You pick out a verse here and there---very few---that seem to you to refer to Jesus as God. We must look at all the other verses in the Scriptures that tell us differently, and there are hundreds. What did Jesus mean by saying to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"? (John 20:17)

Do you ran out of reason without evidence denying Jesus as true God in 1 John 5:20?
That would be a big hurdle for Christians to experience eternal life by not knowing what truly Jesus is. (John 17:3)
Jesus humbled himself though He possessed the state of being God. Even would mean as His property.(Phil 2:6)
As Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek as "huparchonta" as possessions, property, etc.
If you rebut, please post evidence (original Greek text), not just explanations from bias translations.

Once again you have not answered my direct question. What did Jesus mean when he said to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"?

Being then in human nature Jesus humbled himself, obedient to the Father even the death of the cross.(Phil 2:8)
And even the Father called Jesus God in Psalms 45:6, whom Jews interpret it the word "God" as referred to their Messiah.
Jews were the people of God in the OT and it is in their time that they understand it what it mean, why you won't believe them and make your own interpretation? (Psa 45:6, Rev 1:8)

Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross

Why would we think that Jesus is God when he had to be obedient to God? If he was God he wouldn't have to answer to anyone.
Psalm 45:6 does not say that Jesus is God. You do not consider the Jews' actual rendition of this. They say: "Your divine throne is everlasting; your royal scepter is a scepter of equity." And further: "You love righteousness and hate wickedness; rightly has God, your God chosen to anoint you with oil of gladness over all your peers."

That is the translation found in The Tanahk/ The new JPS Translation according to the traditional Hebrew Text. This rendering is what the writer of Hebrews was referring to, and it doesn't say "Your throne O God..."

You are making your own interpretation, based on biased renderings from your lexicons. Look at what the Jews are writing themselves. Why don't you believe them?

In the Hebrew Tanakh the verse 6 is found in verse 7 with Strong Numbers and it doesn't say what your your translation interpret.
See the the meaning of every word, it is not "your divine throne."
Hebrew word "kisseh"(H3678) is throne,
And next Hebrew word "elohiym"(H430) is true God, God etc.
Show here your original Hebrew text as you claim so we could compare.

H3678 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
כּסּה / כּסּא
kissê' / kissêh
BDB Definition:
1) seat (of honour), throne, seat, stool
1a) seat (of honour), throne
1b) royal dignity, authority, power (figuratively)

There is nothing in your references here that contradict what the Jews wrote in their own Scriptures. They see the meaning as: "Your divine throne is everlasting."

Why cut the original Hebrew text in your reply that proves that your translation is wrong?
The word "divine" as you claim is not there but "God" elohiym.
You may post your original Hebrew source here so we could compare.

H3678 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
כּסּה / כּסּא
kissê' / kissêh
BDB Definition:
1) seat (of honour), throne, seat, stool
1a) seat (of honour), throne
1b) royal dignity, authority, power (figuratively)

H430 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
אלהים
'ĕlôhı̂ym
BDB Definition:
1) (plural)
1a) rulers, judges
1b) divine ones
1c) angels
1d) gods
2) (plural intensive - singular meaning)
2a) god, goddess
2b) godlike one
2c) works or special possessions of God
2d) the (true) God
2e) God

Psa 45:7 כסאך H3678  אלהים H430  עולם H5769  ועד H5703  שׁבט H7626  מישׁר H4334  שׁבט H7626  מלכותך׃ H4438 

Psa 45:7 כסאך אלהים עולם ועד שׁבט מישׁר שׁבט מלכותך׃

No, the original text says "Your divine throne..." That is what the Jewish translators have presented. You have been keen to support whatever the Jews said in the N.T., even when they accused Jesus of being a blasphemer (when he said he was older than Abraham), so why can't you accept the Jews' rendition of Psalm 45:7?

[Capbook]

God the Father had been referred as "the one" and Jesus Christ as "this one" the true God and life eternal.
I think you would also understand that "the" referred to someone that is far from the speaker. (Father as in heaven)
While "this" refer to what is near and also the nearest antecedent in the original Greek text, whom to this case is Jesus.


1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722 G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588  true G228  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588  θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207 G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228  θεος G2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166 

1Jn 5:20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν· καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ, ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστῷ. οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς Θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος.

You pick out a verse here and there---very few---that seem to you to refer to Jesus as God. We must look at all the other verses in the Scriptures that tell us differently, and there are hundreds. What did Jesus mean by saying to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"? (John 20:17)

Do you ran out of reason without evidence denying Jesus as true God in 1 John 5:20?
That would be a big hurdle for Christians to experience eternal life by not knowing what truly Jesus is. (John 17:3)
Jesus humbled himself though He possessed the state of being God. Even would mean as His property.(Phil 2:6)
As Lexicon define the word "existing" in Greek as "huparchonta" as possessions, property, etc.
If you rebut, please post evidence (original Greek text), not just explanations from bias translations.

Once again you have not answered my direct question. What did Jesus mean when he said to Mary, "I am ascending to my God and your God"?

Being then in human nature Jesus humbled himself, obedient to the Father even the death of the cross.(Phil 2:8)
And even the Father called Jesus God in Psalms 45:6, whom Jews interpret it the word "God" as referred to their Messiah.
Jews were the people of God in the OT and it is in their time that they understand it what it mean, why you won't believe them and make your own interpretation? (Psa 45:6, Rev 1:8)

Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross

Why would we think that Jesus is God when he had to be obedient to God? If he was God he wouldn't have to answer to anyone.
Psalm 45:6 does not say that Jesus is God. You do not consider the Jews' actual rendition of this. They say: "Your divine throne is everlasting; your royal scepter is a scepter of equity." And further: "You love righteousness and hate wickedness; rightly has God, your God chosen to anoint you with oil of gladness over all your peers."

That is the translation found in The Tanahk/ The new JPS Translation according to the traditional Hebrew Text. This rendering is what the writer of Hebrews was referring to, and it doesn't say "Your throne O God..."

You are making your own interpretation, based on biased renderings from your lexicons. Look at what the Jews are writing themselves. Why don't you believe them?

In the Hebrew Tanakh the verse 6 is found in verse 7 with Strong Numbers and it doesn't say what your your translation interpret.
See the the meaning of every word, it is not "your divine throne."
Hebrew word "kisseh"(H3678) is throne,
And next Hebrew word "elohiym"(H430) is true God, God etc.
Show here your original Hebrew text as you claim so we could compare.

H3678 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
כּסּה / כּסּא
kissê' / kissêh
BDB Definition:
1) seat (of honour), throne, seat, stool
1a) seat (of honour), throne
1b) royal dignity, authority, power (figuratively)

There is nothing in your references here that contradict what the Jews wrote in their own Scriptures. They see the meaning as: "Your divine throne is everlasting."

Why cut the original Hebrew text in your reply that proves that your translation is wrong?
The word "divine" as you claim is not there but "God" elohiym.
You may post your original Hebrew source here so we could compare.

H3678 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
כּסּה / כּסּא
kissê' / kissêh
BDB Definition:
1) seat (of honour), throne, seat, stool
1a) seat (of honour), throne
1b) royal dignity, authority, power (figuratively)

H430 (Brown-Driver-Briggs)
אלהים
'ĕlôhı̂ym
BDB Definition:
1) (plural)
1a) rulers, judges
1b) divine ones
1c) angels
1d) gods
2) (plural intensive - singular meaning)
2a) god, goddess
2b) godlike one
2c) works or special possessions of God
2d) the (true) God
2e) God

Psa 45:7 כסאך H3678  אלהים H430  עולם H5769  ועד H5703  שׁבט H7626  מישׁר H4334  שׁבט H7626  מלכותך׃ H4438 

Psa 45:7 כסאך אלהים עולם ועד שׁבט מישׁר שׁבט מלכותך׃

No, the original text says "Your divine throne..." That is what the Jewish translators have presented. You have been keen to support whatever the Jews said in the N.T., even when they accused Jesus of being a blasphemer (when he said he was older than Abraham), so why can't you accept the Jews' rendition of Psalm 45:7?

You rely of translations of the JPS?
It is not a word for word translation of the Bible. See link below;
You will always be misled by not relying on original Bible words, we will be guilty of eisegesis with that.

The Jewish Publication Society (JPS) translation of the Bible is not a word-for-word translation.
https://www.google.com/search?q=is+jewi ... qEkExdjaZA