Tcg wrote: ↑Sat Nov 06, 2021 1:22 am
William wrote: ↑Sat Nov 06, 2021 1:13 am
tam wrote: ↑Sat Nov 06, 2021 12:44 am
Peace to you,
[
Replying to William in post #9]
Well it might be considered a symbolic gesture that the written word is of no intrinsic value re The Father or The Son.
But the question remains as to why - since it is valid that he could write - he did not write and/or he did write but we have no documentation to examine.
Therefore, why is there no documentation from biblical Jesus available to us, that we can at least have it from the horses mouth rather than as secondhand hearsay from others?
Why leave such inferred 'Words from God' in the hands of fallible Humans?
Here you go:
He was clothed with a robe dipped in blood, and His name is called The Word of God.
Rev 19:13
Surely you knew that?
As I said, Revelations has to be considered unsupported evidence due to it not being witnessed by anyone else.
Surely you knew that?
Not in this sub-forum as you pointed out:
William wrote: ↑Fri Nov 05, 2021 4:58 pm
The purpose of this subforum is to have a place to freely engage in debates on Christian theology with the basic assumption that the Bible can be used as a primary reference without the need to defend its authority.
There are no exceptions made for the book of Revelations. Surely you know that?
Tcg
As per the OP Subject.
QFD: Why is there no known existence of anything Jesus wrote down himself for us to examine?
Therefore arguing relevance for anything that was not written as attribute to Jesus having spoken in the presence of witnesses, is naturally of less importance than those things which are.
Thus, the
basic assumption that
any script of the Bible can be used as a primary reference without the need to defend its authority is to say that anything in the bible which might contradict and/or are otherwise inconsistent with any
other thing written in the bible, is irrelevant.
If that were the case, then there is nothing about the bible which is debatable.
However, I do not see that as being the case, re the statement.
What is under question here
specifically is whether biblical Jesus can be shown to refer to
himself as "The Word of God" and evidence from John which can realistically be considered delusional [since he had a 'vision' which no one else was witness to] should just as realistically be considered less reliable than actual words attributed to biblical Jesus having spoken.
Surely you can appreciate that as sound enough argument?
So the OP is not arguing that the bible does not have reference to Jesus being called "The Word of God"
OP wrote:Re the Thread Subject, as far as I have been able to examine the claim Christians make that biblical Jesus is "The Word of God", I can find no direct writing which has Jesus making such a claim himself.
I have - of course - found biblical reference of others claiming this about Jesus, but nothing yet of Jesus claiming it of himself.