Amos wrote:mictala wrote:3) Romans chapter 14, where it is allowed that each believer can decide for themselves what is sinful (moral) or not in their own conscience and in their own relationship with God. Believers are told not to judge other believers as it is "to their own master they stand or fall." As long as believer A is not harming believer B directly or by harming his faith, believer A is free to follow whatever practice they deem fit for themselves.
This is a horrible perversion of the teaching in Romans 14. Paul is discussing matters about which the Lord is indifferent, e.g. eating meats or observing days. We are not to judge our brother when it comes to these matters, and we're not to allow our liberty in these matters to be a stumbling block to our brother. Our clean conscience cannot make something sinful into something that is ok, but our guilty conscience can make something that is ok into something that is sinful.
I think you are forgetting how contentious the particular issues discussed in Romans 14 were in Paul's time (not to mention making some assumptions about what the Lord thinks). Paul was stoned and left for dead mostly because he was advocating that the Gentiles did not need to follow Mosaic law and because some felt he was saying the same for Jews. The Apostles had a huge controversy and a contentious discussion culminating in Acts chapter 15 over these issues. Paul called Peter to task for his hypocrisy as part of this controversy. Yes, James ultimately pronounced that Gentiles did not need to follow Mosaic law, but this was far from a trivial decision, and certainly did not reflect "indifference" on the part of anyone. The rationale for the decision was that the law was difficult to uphold, even for those raised as Jews, and thus represented an undue burden for the Gentiles.
To say that these are things the Lord is "indifferent" about ignores that they were given as explicity, even vehement, decrees of the Lord in the OT.
If God is indifferent about these commands now, why should we not also consider He might be indifferent to other commands given as part of the very same law. When the OT law was given, it was not divided into "segments." It was all one law, all to be obeyed. The Israelites were to obey all the commands.
In addition, is not presenting gays with a choice to be celibate or live a lie by feigning heterosexuality placing a similar, perhaps even greater, burden on them than the Apostles felt necessary to relieve the Gentiles of?
Now, I do not expect you to be convinced by this argument, but I hope you do consider that you are giving short shrift to the controversy that these issues engendered in their day. People were every bit as passionate about upholding these traditional morals as some are today concerning gay issues.
My point is that one can make a biblical case that it is moral to allow gays the freedom to marry. It is allowing them to make their own moral decisions,
just as the Bible indicates is their right to do!
However, do not forget the larger point that what is considered moral does not dictate what should be legal. In a free society that respects freedom of religion, it is tyranny to impose the religious or moral views of some on everybody as law if the only reason for the imposition is religious.
Keep in mind the constitution does not really have any right not to be offended by someone else's actions. We have made a place for what might be called "decency" but this typically only has to do with very public displays (e.g. public nudity).
Two heterosexuals having sex in public would be considered indecent. In their own home, it is OK. It should be the same way for gays. Let's get to using a fair measuring stick instead of a biased one.
" . . . the line separating good and evil passes, not through states, nor between classes, nor between political parties either, but right through every human heart . . . ." Alexander Solzhenitsyn