Why is JESUS is all upper case?

[placebofactor]

Question; Why did the K.J.B. put each letter of the name of JESUS in upper case in Matthew 1:21 and 25?

And why did all other Bibles using the corrupted A. Codex Alexandrinus, and B. Vatican 1209, 4th century as their foundation put the Lord's name in a lower-case "Jesus?" These other Bibles are the N.I.V., N.W.T., N.A.S.V. Revised Standard, and all other modern-day editions.

Matthew 1:21, “And (Joseph) knew her (Mary) not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.”

[Capbook]

Of course because you are not God, we don't what they have.
You just confirmed that you cannot say, "all that the Father (God) has is mine" that means we are not equal to Him.

I confirmed that even if my son had everything that was mine, he still wouldn't be equal to me.

In the state of being human, you and your son before God are equal as being children of God when have faith in Him.
And man cannot be equal with God. Jesus as man cannot be equal with God.
But Jesus in the state of being God is equal with God. (Col 2:9)

No, not at all. As my son and myself are not equal, neither are Jesus and his Father equal. Colossians 2:9 does not show that Jesus is equal to his Father. It says that all the fullness of the deity dwells in the Christ. Whose deity dwells within the Christ? It is the Father's deity, and it doesn't even hint that the two are equal. Jesus just has all the attributes of his Father, and much of His knowledge, as he has been taught from the Father. See John 5:19:

"Therefore Jesus answered and was saying to them, 'Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of himself, unless it it is something he sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father does, these things the Son also does in like manner.'" (NASB)

Before God in faith, are we not all equal as children of God? Does you and your son doesn't pray to the Father? (Mat 6:9)
For in him dwells all the fulness of the Godhead. In Christ dwells all the fulness the state of being God, the most full Godhead, not only divine powers, but divine nature, bodily, personally, substantially the very substance of God. (Col 1:19)

No. Jesus exemplifies his Father's attributes and has learned much of what the Father knows and has shown him. He is the substance of God, which is spirit, but he is not God. (John 4:24; I Timothy 6:16)

Yes, and why you worship and serve Jesus? You disobey.
Jesus said worship God and serve Him only. (Mat 4:10)
Whose words you will only obey? The Father or Jesus?

Jhn 4:24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

1Ti 6:16 Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.

I don't worship Jesus the same way that I worship Jehovah. In obeying Jesus, we are obeying the Father, because Jehovah said to "listen to him." The Father taught Jesus all that Jesus knows, and the Father's words are in Jesus' mouth, so to speak. Honour definitely belongs to Jesus, but not the same honour that goes to the Father who is the Source of life.

Jesus said: "I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say....Whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak." (John 12:49,50, KJV)

Yes, as you state, the Father said, "listen to Him (Jesus).
But Jesus said, worship the Father and serve Him only. Even though you refer it as other form of "worship" to Jesus, but that's the word Jesus specifically used and referred. That is disobedience to Jesus words.

What is it you are saying that is "disobedience to Jesus' words"? ("Worship" can have several levels, as we have discussed before ad nauseum.)

Can those levels be like these;
1. The Father - worthy of worship as a one true God?
2. Jesus - worthy of worship as "a true god or false god?
3. Zeus - worthy of worship as "a true god or false god?