Is it one, or is it tw?

[placebofactor]

1 Peter 1:1, “Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ,”
How many offices does Peter hold?

Isaiah 45:21, "A just God and a Savior; there is none beside me.”
Is the reference to one or two people?

Titus 2:13, “Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ: who gave himself to us”
How many individuals was Paul referring to when he said, “the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ:”

Jehovah’s Witnesses claim it’s both the Father and Son who are going to appear, or is Jesus being referred to as both God and Savior as in Isaiah 45:21?

John 20:27-28, Jesus said to Thomas, “Reach hither your finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing. And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.”

How many people was Thomas referring to when he said, “My Lord and my God?” The Witnesses calm Thomas is referring to both the Father and Jesus, is that true?

Acts 2:9, “Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites,”
How many nations are mentioned?

Matthew 28:19, “Go you therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Ghost.”
How many individuals are mentioned, two or three? Witnesses claim it’s two, not three.

[Capbook]

1 Peter 1:1, “Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ,”
How many offices does Peter hold?

Isaiah 45:21, "A just God and a Savior; there is none beside me.”
Is the reference to one or two people?

Titus 2:13, “Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ: who gave himself to us”
How many individuals was Paul referring to when he said, “the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ:”

Jehovah’s Witnesses claim it’s both the Father and Son who are going to appear, or is Jesus being referred to as both God and Savior as in Isaiah 45:21?

John 20:27-28, Jesus said to Thomas, “Reach hither your finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing. And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.”

How many people was Thomas referring to when he said, “My Lord and my God?” The Witnesses calm Thomas is referring to both the Father and Jesus, is that true?

Acts 2:9, “Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites,”
How many nations are mentioned?

Matthew 28:19, “Go you therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Ghost.”
How many individuals are mentioned, two or three? Witnesses claim it’s two, not three.

There are three persons, but one name, one God, into which believers are baptized. And a proof of the true deity both of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost; and that Christ, as the Son of God, is God; since baptism is administered equally in the name of all three.
And the three were there at the baptism of Jesus.

[servant1]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #1]


Isaiah is speaking about the true God= YHVH(Jehovah) At that point was the only savior.
Upon Jesus completion of the ransom sacrifice he became savior as well. Without that sacrifice, none would be saved.

[Bible_Student]

There are some recorded dialogues that Jehovah and Moses had in the Scriptures. Although I say that they were direct dialogues between them, I do not mean that it was the Creator of the Universe expressing Himself through something which we could say is His own voice or the sound He makes to communicate with someone... We cannot compare Jehovah's actual voice between the heavenly beings who are in spirit form like Him, and who appear before His throne in heaven to praise Him, receive instructions from Him, etc. We cannot even be sure whether Jehovah's presence in a specific place in the heavens can be a view of Him in His entirety, for the Scripture tells us that not even the heavens or "the heaven of the heavens" can contain Him (1 Kings 8:27).

We do know that He is in a spiritual place where there are many creatures who can access Him and communicate with Him and praise Him, as well as hear His voice and receive His instructions. But can you imagine the Magnificent Creator, who is the Spirit that nothing can contain, speaking directly to a human being who cannot even hear certain sounds "ringing", emitted in space, or see certain waves of light?

When we analyze this reality about our Supreme Creator, we can understand what it really means for Jehovah to have spoken, for example, to Moses. He can certainly express himself in human language through a vision, a dream, or some other form. He can also express himself "directly" through one of his millions of heavenly creatures who represent him, as emissaries to a King.

Jesus, in that name or another, has always been the representative of God par excellence. He is his Only Begotten and Firstborn Son. That is why he is called the Logos of God.

[Capbook]

There are some recorded dialogues that Jehovah and Moses had in the Scriptures. Although I say that they were direct dialogues between them, I do not mean that it was the Creator of the Universe expressing Himself through something which we could say is His own voice or the sound He makes to communicate with someone... We cannot compare Jehovah's actual voice between the heavenly beings who are in spirit form like Him, and who appear before His throne in heaven to praise Him, receive instructions from Him, etc. We cannot even be sure whether Jehovah's presence in a specific place in the heavens can be a view of Him in His entirety, for the Scripture tells us that not even the heavens or "the heaven of the heavens" can contain Him (1 Kings 8:27).

We do know that He is in a spiritual place where there are many creatures who can access Him and communicate with Him and praise Him, as well as hear His voice and receive His instructions. But can you imagine the Magnificent Creator, who is the Spirit that nothing can contain, speaking directly to a human being who cannot even hear certain sounds "ringing", emitted in space, or see certain waves of light?

When we analyze this reality about our Supreme Creator, we can understand what it really means for Jehovah to have spoken, for example, to Moses. He can certainly express himself in human language through a vision, a dream, or some other form. He can also express himself "directly" through one of his millions of heavenly creatures who represent him, as emissaries to a King.

Jesus, in that name or another, has always been the representative of God par excellence. He is his Only Begotten and Firstborn Son. That is why he is called the Logos of God.

For the voices that were heard, and the forms that were seen under the Old Testament dispensation, from the first of this kind in Eden's garden, to the incarnation of Christ, which are ascribed to God, or to a divine person, were either by the ministry of angels or they were voices uttered by the Son of God or forms assumed by Him, who often appeared in an human form, as a prelude of His incarnation, that it was wonderful, and remarkable, that the Father should bear a testimony to the sonship of Christ by a voice from heaven (Mat 3:17).

Jhn 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.

[onewithhim]

1 Peter 1:1, “Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ,”
How many offices does Peter hold?

Isaiah 45:21, "A just God and a Savior; there is none beside me.”
Is the reference to one or two people?

Titus 2:13, “Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ: who gave himself to us”
How many individuals was Paul referring to when he said, “the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ:”

Two individuals.

[JehovahsWitness]

How many people was Thomas referring to when he said, “My Lord and my God?” The Witnesses calm Thomas is referring to both the Father and Jesus...

If by "The Witnesses" you are referring to JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES , the Watchtower Society of Jehovah's Witnesses have actually published the following .

what about the apostle Thomas’ saying, “My Lord and my God!” to Jesus at John 20:28? To Thomas, Jesus was like “a god,” especially in the miraculous circumstances that prompted his exclamation. Some scholars suggest that Thomas may simply have made an emotional exclamation of astonishment, spoken to Jesus but directed to God. In either case, Thomas did not think that Jesus was Almighty God, for he and all the other apostles knew that Jesus never claimed to be God but taught that Jehovah alone is “the only true God.”—John 17:3.

Source : https://www.jw.org/en/library/books/Sho ... oof-Texts/

To avoid posting misinformation, you can check your sources about the teachings of Jehovah's Witnesses by consulting their official website : www.jw.org

JW

[JehovahsWitness]

Jhn 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.

What is your point? What point are you trying to support with this scripture. Please clarify.


JW

[placebofactor]

How many people was Thomas referring to when he said, “My Lord and my God?” The Witnesses calm Thomas is referring to both the Father and Jesus...

If by "The Witnesses" you are referring to JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES , the Watchtower Society of Jehovah's Witnesses have actually published the following .

what about the apostle Thomas’ saying, “My Lord and my God!” to Jesus at John 20:28? To Thomas, Jesus was like “a god,” especially in the miraculous circumstances that prompted his exclamation. Some scholars suggest that Thomas may simply have made an emotional exclamation of astonishment, spoken to Jesus but directed to God. In either case, Thomas did not think that Jesus was Almighty God, for he and all the other apostles knew that Jesus never claimed to be God but taught that Jehovah alone is “the only true God.”—John 17:3.

I love the words and phrases you use to cover up the truth. "Jesus was like a god." "Miraculous circumstances" "prompted his exclamation." "Some scholars" You forgot to mention which ones. "Tomas may have simply have made an emotional exclamation of ASTONISHMENT." "He spoke to Jesus but directed to God." "I love this one, "In either case" What case would that be?

"Thomas did not think that Jesus was Almighty God." Were you there? That's one of the most deceptive statements I have ever heard.

You say Jesus never called to be God. Let me ask you one question, "Did Jesus created the heaven, and earth? I am not asking you if the Father sent him, or was the Father's active force with him, my question requires a yes or no. "Did Jesus create the heaven and the earth.

Source : https://www.jw.org/en/library/books/Sho ... oof-Texts/

To avoid posting misinformation, you can check your sources about the teachings of Jehovah's Witnesses by consulting their official website : www.jw.org

JW

Only a Witness can keep up with their changes. I've had enough conversations with Jehovah's Witnesses about John 20:28. Here's what they have said to be a hundred times, Tomas was talking to both Jehovah and Jesus, and don't call me a liar. I've been dealing with Witnesses for forty years.

[onewithhim]

How many people was Thomas referring to when he said, “My Lord and my God?” The Witnesses calm Thomas is referring to both the Father and Jesus...

If by "The Witnesses" you are referring to JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES , the Watchtower Society of Jehovah's Witnesses have actually published the following .

what about the apostle Thomas’ saying, “My Lord and my God!” to Jesus at John 20:28? To Thomas, Jesus was like “a god,” especially in the miraculous circumstances that prompted his exclamation. Some scholars suggest that Thomas may simply have made an emotional exclamation of astonishment, spoken to Jesus but directed to God. In either case, Thomas did not think that Jesus was Almighty God, for he and all the other apostles knew that Jesus never claimed to be God but taught that Jehovah alone is “the only true God.”—John 17:3.

I love the words and phrases you use to cover up the truth. "Jesus was like a god." "Miraculous circumstances" "prompted his exclamation." "Some scholars" You forgot to mention which ones. "Tomas may have simply have made an emotional exclamation of ASTONISHMENT." "He spoke to Jesus but directed to God." "I love this one, "In either case" What case would that be?

"Thomas did not think that Jesus was Almighty God." Were you there? That's one of the most deceptive statements I have ever heard.

You say Jesus never called to be God. Let me ask you one question, "Did Jesus created the heaven, and earth? I am not asking you if the Father sent him, or was the Father's active force with him, my question requires a yes or no. "Did Jesus create the heaven and the earth.

Source : https://www.jw.org/en/library/books/Sho ... oof-Texts/

To avoid posting misinformation, you can check your sources about the teachings of Jehovah's Witnesses by consulting their official website : www.jw.org

JW

Only a Witness can keep up with their changes. I've had enough conversations with Jehovah's Witnesses about John 20:28. Here's what they have said to be a hundred times, Tomas was talking to both Jehovah and Jesus, and don't call me a liar. I've been dealing with Witnesses for forty years.

The Witnesses have given you as valid an answer as what you could say. There is the entire Bible to go against Thomas calling Jesus God. If he wasn't speaking to Jehovah as well, then he was just exclaiming, like we do hundreds of times in our lives, "Oh my God!" Just an exclamation of wonderment. There is no other place in the gospel that calls Jesus God, or even any of the N.T. There is SO MUCH to show that Jesus always looked UP to his Father and declared only that he is God's Son. If John was writing that Thomas was calling Jesus God, he had the opportunity to underscore that idea after that exclamation by John himself agreeing with Thomas, but John didn't say anything close to that. Indeed, in chapter 20 at the end, John could have made a statement that would put it all straight that Jesus is God, but he didn't. He said: "But these are written , that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the SON of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name." (John 20:31, KJV)

How can you base your religious opinions on such shaky and tenuous phrases that can be taken many ways, such as John 1:1 and John 8:58? They could be taken in a variety of ways. They are most likely the victims of bad translation. You can't say that about John 20:31 or John 10:36 or John 20:17 or Revelation 3:12 or any other passage that shows Jesus subservient to his Father. (John 5:19; John 12:49,50; John 14:28; John 15:10; John 17:3) Can you?