How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

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How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #1

Post by otseng »

From the On the Bible being inerrant thread:
nobspeople wrote: Wed Sep 22, 2021 9:42 amHow can you trust something that's written about god that contradictory, contains errors and just plain wrong at times? Is there a logical way to do so, or do you just want it to be god's word so much that you overlook these things like happens so often through the history of christianity?
otseng wrote: Wed Sep 22, 2021 7:08 am The Bible can still be God's word, inspired, authoritative, and trustworthy without the need to believe in inerrancy.
For debate:
How can the Bible be considered authoritative and inspired without the need to believe in the doctrine of inerrancy?

While debating, do not simply state verses to say the Bible is inspired or trustworthy.

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #761

Post by Diogenes »

otseng wrote: Sun Feb 13, 2022 12:20 am
Diogenes wrote: Fri Feb 11, 2022 9:23 pm Really? Some experts show just the opposite, that scribes felt free to rewrite scripture without indicating they had.
"Scribes who copied texts frequently added, changed or omitted content – without giving any indication in the manuscript that they had done so.”
https://news.ku.edu/2020/07/09/how-dead ... -literally
We can verify whether the Dead Sea Scrolls are similar to the Masoretic by looking at the differences for ourselves.

Transponder gave a good site for us to see the differences:
TRANSPONDER wrote: Thu Feb 10, 2022 4:37 am http://dssenglishbible.com
Let's look at the differences in Gen 1...

(Italic is Masoretic, bold is Dead Sea Scrolls)

Scrolls 1Q1, 4Q2, 4Q483 have no significant differences.

Scroll 4Q7:
Gen 1:5 God called the light day daytime

Scroll 4Q8:
Gen 1:9 God said, “Let the waters under the sky be gathered together to one place collection, and let the dry land appear”; and it was so.

Scroll 4Q10:
Gen 1:9 God said, “Let the waters under the sky be gathered together to one place, and let the dry land appear”; and it was so. And the waters under the sky were gathered together to their place, and the dry land appeared.

The differences above do not change any of the basic meaning.

And the rest of Genesis as well have trivial differences.
The question is NOT, "Do the Scrolls match, or almost match?" Rather, the question is, "Are there differences?" If the scribes copied perfectly (guided by an omniscient and omnipotent God) why would there be even small discrepancies?"

There are also differences that change meanings.
One example:
One impressive example of a textual variation that Dr. Parry and I found was Deuteronomy 32:8-9. I will present the divergent texts and offer an explanation below. The King James (Masoretic) Version of Deuteronomy 32:8-9 reads: 8 When the most High divided to the nations their inheritance, when he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the people according to the number of the children of Israel. 9 For the Lord’s portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance.

The Dead Sea Scrolls version reads: 8 When the most High divided to the nations their inheritance, when he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the people according to the number of the sons of God. 9 For the Lord’s portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance. [J.A. Duncan, in Qumran Cave 4. IX: Deuteronomy, Joshua, Judges, Kings, ed. E. Ulrich and F.M. Cross, DJD XIV (Oxford: Clarendon, 1995), 90.]

The incredible significance of this variation is that God can have sons in pre-Christian era Jewish theology! Jewish tradition maintained that there were 70 nations of the world, so therefore post-Second Temple Judaism was able to make the connection that the Most High divided the nations according to the 70 sons of Israel. An even earlier Jewish theology, however, maintained that the 70 nations of the world were divided according to the 70 divine sons of the Most High God. This concept is fascinatingly preserved even in ancient Canaanite religion! A convincing conclusion to this argument is that Jewish scribes changed the scripture, after the advent of Christianity, to prevent the spread of the idea that God can have sons from public and/or Jewish knowledge.
http://jur.byu.edu/?p=3703
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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #762

Post by otseng »

TRANSPONDER wrote: Mon Feb 14, 2022 6:38 am
otseng wrote: Sun Feb 13, 2022 12:39 am If you do not accept the distinction of what is major and what is minor are doctrinal and non-doctrinal points, then where do you draw the line of what is a major point (which would invalidate the reliability of the Bible) and what is a minor point (which would not invalidate the reliability of the Bible)?
If the Bible is caught out in a major lie I would see it as irrelevant if not dishonest to say it didn't matter to Bible credibility simply because it did not impinge on matters of doctrine. As I say, if the Bible goes down the tube, it takes Christian doctrines with it.
What would classify as a major lie vs a minor lie?
Diogenes wrote: Mon Feb 14, 2022 11:05 pm The question is NOT, "Do the Scrolls match, or almost match?" Rather, the question is, "Are there differences?" If the scribes copied perfectly (guided by an omniscient and omnipotent God) why would there be even small discrepancies?"
Nobody is claiming copyists made perfect copies. And this thread is not invoking any supernatural causation either, including copying of the text.
One impressive example of a textual variation that Dr. Parry and I found was Deuteronomy 32:8-9.
Not so sure this counts as an "impressive example of a textual variation". The difference here is simply "children of Israel" vs "sons of God". Also, I'm not so sure it can be literally interpreted as "70 divine sons of the Most High God", esp since there is no mention of 70 or divine sons in this passage.

When the most High divided to the nations their inheritance, when he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the people according to the number of the children of Israel sons of God. 9 For the Lord’s portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance.

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #763

Post by TRANSPONDER »

"What would classify as a major lie vs a minor lie?"

I have given examples. 10, 000 warriors vs 100,000. One can't be true and may be a copyists' error or a deliberate exaggeration (a lie in fact) either way. Whereas Luke's treatment of the rejection at Nazareth and indeed the Nativity -claim will be examples of a big, fat lie.

In between are dubious passages, wangles, fiddles and spin. Shifting the temple cleansing or the anointing at Bethany (and one has to ask why), or the point about God not smiting the Assyrians, on evidence (and we know why), Matthew inventing a tomb -guard and we know why there, too, the shekel -eating fish, the opening graves, Luke's strengthening angel and the altered angelic message, the penitent thief, the hammock of wrigglies (Acts) , the council of Jerusalem, Peter being given the 'keys of heaven'....and most of the rest of the Book.

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #764

Post by otseng »

[Replying to TRANSPONDER in post #764]

I'm looking for an objective definition, rather than examples. Your examples to me are simply minor issues. They have no impact on any doctrinal issues, so under my classification, they would all be minor points. You can even remove all those passages from the Bible and it would have no impact on doctrinal belief.

Simply pointing out a list of minor points do not invalidate the entire Bible. It would be like me pointing out all your typos, improper formatting, wrong terms used, false accusations, unsupported claims and then saying you are unreliable and everything should be discounted. I have to dig past those things and get to the core of what you are communicating. If I simply respond back to your posts and only point out your typos and formatting errors without ever addressing your main points, then it is not really discussing what is trying to be communicated. Instead, I spend little time mentioning these minor issues, but focus on the main points of what you are conveying.

Also, I still feel there's this expectation from skeptics in this thread that inerrancy is held to, even though the OP explicitly rejects inerrancy.
Diogenes wrote: Mon Feb 14, 2022 11:05 pm If the scribes copied perfectly (guided by an omniscient and omnipotent God) why would there be even small discrepancies?"
TRANSPONDER wrote: Tue Feb 15, 2022 3:46 am One can't be true and may be a copyists' error or a deliberate exaggeration (a lie in fact) either way.

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #765

Post by TRANSPONDER »

otseng wrote: Tue Feb 15, 2022 11:58 pm [Replying to TRANSPONDER in post #764]

I'm looking for an objective definition, rather than examples. Your examples to me are simply minor issues. They have no impact on any doctrinal issues, so under my classification, they would all be minor points. You can even remove all those passages from the Bible and it would have no impact on doctrinal belief.

Simply pointing out a list of minor points do not invalidate the entire Bible. It would be like me pointing out all your typos, improper formatting, wrong terms used, false accusations, unsupported claims and then saying you are unreliable and everything should be discounted. I have to dig past those things and get to the core of what you are communicating. If I simply respond back to your posts and only point out your typos and formatting errors without ever addressing your main points, then it is not really discussing what is trying to be communicated. Instead, I spend little time mentioning these minor issues, but focus on the main points of what you are conveying.

Also, I still feel there's this expectation from skeptics in this thread that inerrancy is held to, even though the OP explicitly rejects inerrancy.
Diogenes wrote: Mon Feb 14, 2022 11:05 pm If the scribes copied perfectly (guided by an omniscient and omnipotent God) why would there be even small discrepancies?"
TRANSPONDER wrote: Tue Feb 15, 2022 3:46 am One can't be true and may be a copyists' error or a deliberate exaggeration (a lie in fact) either way.
erratum. In my post above, I put 'Bethany' when I meant 'Bethsaida', sorry about that.

As an objective definition, whether the discrepancies or contradictions (apparently real even if they can be explained) affect doctrine is irrelevant to whether they affect Bible credibility as relating reliable fact, historical or scientific. It is as irrelevant as saying that it is not a history -book or the 'wrong' things are just metaphorical. If they are not reliable (are wrong) then that makes the Bible unreliable.

That said, major or minor is I suppose how easily explainable it is and how much it impinges on credibility. We have already seen (or we should have) how even an undeniably historical event (confirmed by the Assyrians) can still be something that affects Bible credibility: God did not smite the Assyrians. Thus it is (or so I argue) an example of the writers lying about what happened in order to support God - belief. It's significant; and that the siege was a real event is not the issue.

What's a small issue is - for example - the rejection at Nazareth in Mark and Matthew. One says ..let he refresh my memory... in Matthew: 'Is this not the carpenter's son? Is not his mother called Mary?' and mentions his brothers and sisters. Mark 6 'is this not the carpenter, son of Mary' etc. It's easy to wave that away as misremembering what exactly was said and even claim that it makes it reliable as they were reporting what they remembered, not just copying. But if you look at Luke, it's in association with the messianic declaration in Nazareth and the attempt to kill Jesus. But Matthew and Mark BOTH say nothing about it. It is a discrepancy not so easy to dismiss with 'Oh..they didn't think it important'. or ''they just forgot'. Like the omission of the raising of Lazarus or no transfiguration in John or indeed no tomb -guard anywhere but in Matthew, these are significant discrepancies or contradictions that can't easily be explained. And the more of them we get, the less credibly the gospels look as eyewitness report, even at second or third hand.

As I say, the Nativities are a Biggie as they are demonstrably, on the internal evidence, false and are a precedent for supposing that other 'Biggies' are also false. And that the resurrection stories are also severely discrepant and not easily explained (even with making stuff up) is a real biggie as it does affect doctrine even more than the Nativity - a Christian might be rather relieved to drop the virgin birth :D but the resurrection is (as you agreed) basic to Christian doctrine.

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #766

Post by TRANSPONDER »

P.s or maybe I mean a post in another thread where I mentioned there was no Galilee material in John between the healing of the Rulers' son (at a distance) and the boat trip to Bethsaida, not Bethany, of course.

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #767

Post by otseng »

TRANSPONDER wrote: Wed Feb 16, 2022 3:04 am That said, major or minor is I suppose how easily explainable it is and how much it impinges on credibility.
Not exactly sure what you mean. Are you saying all sources must agree on something in order for the Bible to be credible and if sources do not agree, then the Bible is then therefore not credible? Or are you saying that anything that invokes a supernatural cause immediately makes it not credible?
We have already seen (or we should have) how even an undeniably historical event (confirmed by the Assyrians) can still be something that affects Bible credibility: God did not smite the Assyrians.
The lack of agreement between us on what constitutes a major or a minor issue is why this is repeatedly brought up. As I argued before, it does not really matter how the Assyrians died and it was not the point of the text.
Thus it is (or so I argue) an example of the writers lying about what happened in order to support God - belief. It's significant; and that the siege was a real event is not the issue.
Lying would be hard to prove in this example.
But Matthew and Mark BOTH say nothing about it. It is a discrepancy not so easy to dismiss with 'Oh..they didn't think it important'. or ''they just forgot'. Like the omission of the raising of Lazarus or no transfiguration in John or indeed no tomb -guard anywhere but in Matthew, these are significant discrepancies or contradictions that can't easily be explained. And the more of them we get, the less credibly the gospels look as eyewitness report, even at second or third hand.
There is no need for all four gospels to all have the same content in order for the Bible to qualify as reliable.
but the resurrection is (as you agreed) basic to Christian doctrine.
Yes.

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #768

Post by TRANSPONDER »

otseng wrote: Wed Feb 16, 2022 10:36 pm
TRANSPONDER wrote: Wed Feb 16, 2022 3:04 am That said, major or minor is I suppose how easily explainable it is and how much it impinges on credibility.
Not exactly sure what you mean. Are you saying all sources must agree on something in order for the Bible to be credible and if sources do not agree, then the Bible is then therefore not credible? Or are you saying that anything that invokes a supernatural cause immediately makes it not credible?
We have already seen (or we should have) how even an undeniably historical event (confirmed by the Assyrians) can still be something that affects Bible credibility: God did not smite the Assyrians.
The lack of agreement between us on what constitutes a major or a minor issue is why this is repeatedly brought up. As I argued before, it does not really matter how the Assyrians died and it was not the point of the text.
Thus it is (or so I argue) an example of the writers lying about what happened in order to support God - belief. It's significant; and that the siege was a real event is not the issue.
Lying would be hard to prove in this example.
But Matthew and Mark BOTH say nothing about it. It is a discrepancy not so easy to dismiss with 'Oh..they didn't think it important'. or ''they just forgot'. Like the omission of the raising of Lazarus or no transfiguration in John or indeed no tomb -guard anywhere but in Matthew, these are significant discrepancies or contradictions that can't easily be explained. And the more of them we get, the less credibly the gospels look as eyewitness report, even at second or third hand.
There is no need for all four gospels to all have the same content in order for the Bible to qualify as reliable.
but the resurrection is (as you agreed) basic to Christian doctrine.
Yes.
Major contradictions or discrepancies are, as I explained, ones that bring the credibility of the Bible -narrative into serious question and can't be easily explained. Obviously if the gospels (for instance) agree on something it is not going to be a discrepancy or contradiction. Also if easily explained or irrelevant (1) it is minor.

The lie about God saving Jerusalem when the evidence (when compared with the Assyrian account) shows that Hezekiah actually submitted and paid tribute, is pretty clear. It is significant precedent I'd say. You do yourself no credit by pulling distractions about major or minor contradictions, nor by references to 'how the Assyrians died' because that is the lie - the evidence says they didn't 'die' - not so as to save Jerusalem (you will not, I trust pull 'oh...well surely Some died..' so as not to make yourself a laughing -stock). If they had, Hezekiah would not have submitted and paid tribute, as both the Assyrians and the Bible say he did, though the Bible tries to cover that up. That's the Spin.

Neither do you do yourself or your case much credit by trying to pass off serious and major contradictions as 'not having the same content'. We know the excuse that minor disagreements enhance Bible veracity rather than damage it, but people are not dumb, otseng , mate,and they can see that the major contradictions DO call Bible reliability into question as well as I can, and your ongoing refusal to see it (or pretend that you don't) harms the credit of your case and your own., mate,

But then I have come to learn that the believer doesn't care about trashing their own credibility and that of their belief, just so long as they can prop up their faith with denial. And it's not getting at you, mate; it's something that Believers catch, like C19, and it's not really their fault. It's a religious virus that harms the correct working of the brain.

(1) Doctrine is irrelevant to whether a part of the Bible narrative is credible or not, but obviously a discredited claim that takes a doctrine (like Virgin birth or the resurrection) down with it is additionally significant.

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #769

Post by TRANSPONDER »

otseng wrote: Tue Feb 15, 2022 11:58 pm [Replying to TRANSPONDER in post #764]

I'm looking for an objective definition, rather than examples. Your examples to me are simply minor issues. They have no impact on any doctrinal issues, so under my classification, they would all be minor points. You can even remove all those passages from the Bible and it would have no impact on doctrinal belief.

Simply pointing out a list of minor points do not invalidate the entire Bible. It would be like me pointing out all your typos, improper formatting, wrong terms used, false accusations, unsupported claims and then saying you are unreliable and everything should be discounted. I have to dig past those things and get to the core of what you are communicating. If I simply respond back to your posts and only point out your typos and formatting errors without ever addressing your main points, then it is not really discussing what is trying to be communicated. Instead, I spend little time mentioning these minor issues, but focus on the main points of what you are conveying.

Also, I still feel there's this expectation from skeptics in this thread that inerrancy is held to, even though the OP explicitly rejects inerrancy.
Diogenes wrote: Mon Feb 14, 2022 11:05 pm If the scribes copied perfectly (guided by an omniscient and omnipotent God) why would there be even small discrepancies?"
TRANSPONDER wrote: Tue Feb 15, 2022 3:46 am One can't be true and may be a copyists' error or a deliberate exaggeration (a lie in fact) either way.
These are two different things. One deals with God micromanaging his book and the other is evaluating the Bible narrative in the way we'd evaluate any other book.

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #770

Post by TRANSPONDER »

Diogenes wrote: Mon Feb 14, 2022 11:05 pm
otseng wrote: Sun Feb 13, 2022 12:20 am
Diogenes wrote: Fri Feb 11, 2022 9:23 pm Really? Some experts show just the opposite, that scribes felt free to rewrite scripture without indicating they had.
"Scribes who copied texts frequently added, changed or omitted content – without giving any indication in the manuscript that they had done so.”
https://news.ku.edu/2020/07/09/how-dead ... -literally
We can verify whether the Dead Sea Scrolls are similar to the Masoretic by looking at the differences for ourselves.

Transponder gave a good site for us to see the differences:
TRANSPONDER wrote: Thu Feb 10, 2022 4:37 am http://dssenglishbible.com
Let's look at the differences in Gen 1...

(Italic is Masoretic, bold is Dead Sea Scrolls)

Scrolls 1Q1, 4Q2, 4Q483 have no significant differences.

Scroll 4Q7:
Gen 1:5 God called the light day daytime

Scroll 4Q8:
Gen 1:9 God said, “Let the waters under the sky be gathered together to one place collection, and let the dry land appear”; and it was so.

Scroll 4Q10:
Gen 1:9 God said, “Let the waters under the sky be gathered together to one place, and let the dry land appear”; and it was so. And the waters under the sky were gathered together to their place, and the dry land appeared.

The differences above do not change any of the basic meaning.

And the rest of Genesis as well have trivial differences.
The question is NOT, "Do the Scrolls match, or almost match?" Rather, the question is, "Are there differences?" If the scribes copied perfectly (guided by an omniscient and omnipotent God) why would there be even small discrepancies?"

There are also differences that change meanings.
One example:
One impressive example of a textual variation that Dr. Parry and I found was Deuteronomy 32:8-9. I will present the divergent texts and offer an explanation below. The King James (Masoretic) Version of Deuteronomy 32:8-9 reads: 8 When the most High divided to the nations their inheritance, when he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the people according to the number of the children of Israel. 9 For the Lord’s portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance.

The Dead Sea Scrolls version reads: 8 When the most High divided to the nations their inheritance, when he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the people according to the number of the sons of God. 9 For the Lord’s portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance. [J.A. Duncan, in Qumran Cave 4. IX: Deuteronomy, Joshua, Judges, Kings, ed. E. Ulrich and F.M. Cross, DJD XIV (Oxford: Clarendon, 1995), 90.]

The incredible significance of this variation is that God can have sons in pre-Christian era Jewish theology! Jewish tradition maintained that there were 70 nations of the world, so therefore post-Second Temple Judaism was able to make the connection that the Most High divided the nations according to the 70 sons of Israel. An even earlier Jewish theology, however, maintained that the 70 nations of the world were divided according to the 70 divine sons of the Most High God. This concept is fascinatingly preserved even in ancient Canaanite religion! A convincing conclusion to this argument is that Jewish scribes changed the scripture, after the advent of Christianity, to prevent the spread of the idea that God can have sons from public and/or Jewish knowledge.
http://jur.byu.edu/?p=3703

The King James (Masoretic) Version of Deuteronomy 32:8-9 reads: 8 When the most High divided to the nations their inheritance, when he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the people according to the number of the children of Israel. 9 For the Lord’s portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance.

The Dead Sea Scrolls version reads: 8 When the most High divided to the nations their inheritance, when he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the people according to the number of the sons of God. 9 For the Lord’s portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance. [J.A. Duncan, in Qumran Cave 4. IX: Deuteronomy, Joshua, Judges, Kings, ed. E. Ulrich and F.M. Cross, DJD XIV (Oxford: Clarendon, 1995), 90.]
Septuagint:
8When the Most High divided the nations, when he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the nations according to the number of the angels of God. 9 And his people Jacob became the portion of the Lord, Israel was the line of his inheritance.

Children of Israel, Sons of God or angels of God? Well, if Qumran agrees with the Septuagint, that it refers to all nations divided according to some semi -divine sons of God rather than referring to the tribes of Israel, then we may be back to seeing the Septuagint more reflecting the theology of the Jews BC. while the Masoretic -text and thus the Masoretic - based King James may have been altered to say something different.

Is there any quote of these lines in the NT either by Jesus or Paul?

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