Why a woman cannot be ordained a priest.

[polonius]

The Catholic Church insists that it cannot ordain women priests and any such attempt to do so is invalid.

The original reason was stated in Aquinas' Summa Theologica.

"Wherefore even though a woman were made the object of all that is done in conferring Orders, she. would not receive Orders, for since a sacrament is a sign, not only the thing, but the signification of the thing, is required in all sacramental actions;
Accordingly, since it is not possible in the female sex to signify eminence of degree, for a woman is in the state of subjection, it follows that she cannot receive the sacrament of Order . . . Summa Theologica Suppl. qu. 39 art. 1.


However, this argument isn’t taken seriously any longer. So the Church had to come up with a new reason not to ordain women.

The argument now used that Christ made apostles of men only, only a man can be ordained. But if we follow this logic, although Romans and Greek were in Israel in Christ's time, he only made Jews apostles. So, if the Church is to use parallel reasoning, only Jews can be ordained priests.

[rikuoamero]

I remember asking one of my teachers this, a Catholic father and being astounded that this was the reason. He admitted to me he agreed with my amazement.

[bluethread]

So, if the Church is to use parallel reasoning, only Jews can be ordained priests.

According to the Scriptures, not only that, but only male Levites can be priests. Figuratively, Adonai's people are referred to as a nation of priests, but that would mean that all believers, men and women would be priests. Women have been judges and community leaders, though that was the exception. We are talking about temple service here. There is no Scriptural explanation that I am aware of, but a rabbinical explanation is the risk that niddah could occur while she is serving and that would defile the temple, just as any form of human bleeding would.

[marco]

The argument now used that Christ made apostles of men only, only a man can be ordained. But if we follow this logic, although Romans and Greek were in Israel in Christ's time, he only made Jews apostles. So, if the Church is to use parallel reasoning, only Jews can be ordained priests.

One can get too sharp, Polonius. Jesus was free to choose women if he wanted to and for some reason chose not to. The society that he was incarnated into was Jewish society. After his death his influence spread to gentiles and even Britons. He didn't have any American apostles either.

All the same I agree with your observation about the misogyny in Aquinas's Summa. Abrahamic religions do seem to regard women as the root of evil.

[tam]

Peace to you!

The argument now used that Christ made apostles of men only, only a man can be ordained. But if we follow this logic, although Romans and Greek were in Israel in Christ's time, he only made Jews apostles. So, if the Church is to use parallel reasoning, only Jews can be ordained priests... polonius.advice

Yes, I remember having this same conversation with another member here.

There is no consistency in that argument. Not that I am advocating for anyone (male or female) to become a priest in that religion or in any other religion. But the teaching itself is incorrect and inconsistent.

Figuratively, Adonai's people are referred to as a nation of priests, but that would mean that all believers, men and women would be priests... bluethread

I would suggest that this was not meant to be figurative. All of Israel WAS meant to be a holy nation, set apart, and all would have served as kings and priests with Christ. Except that many rejected Him. Hence, the invitation opened up to gentiles as well.



**

In addition to the OP,

The Bride - who reigns with Christ in His Kingdom as kings and priests - is made of both male and female. The Bride is male and female. The kings and priests are male and female.

And their anointing is done with holy spirit; hence it is a true anointing.


Not a man-made ritual called 'ordaining'.




Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

[marco]

Not a man-made ritual called 'ordaining'.

People devise their own interpretations, Tam, and some are deeply convinced that the one that sticks to them is the right one. The Church symbolically uses oil to ordain; it carries out what it believes to be the instructions of Jesus. Of course a Luther, Zwingli, Calvin or Knox might come along and point to a different approach. So would Henry viii though at one point he was Defensor Fidei.

The Church I think tried to imitate what it sees Christ has done. Some might consider it sad that Christ had no ladies in his apostolate, though I understand that Pope Francis has tried to reverse the inequality by making Magdalene the "apostolorum apostola", and giving her a special day of honour. Which is nice.


As Jesus said, there are many mansions in God's house and presumably, as was his wont, he was talking figuratively about the different opinions people have. Of course one must never claim the front seats for oneself, as Jesus also pointed out.

[bluethread]

Figuratively, Adonai's people are referred to as a nation of priests, but that would mean that all believers, men and women would be priests... bluethread

I would suggest that this was not meant to be figurative. All of Israel WAS meant to be a holy nation, set apart, and all would have served as kings and priests with Christ. Except that many rejected Him. Hence, the invitation opened up to gentiles as well.

So, when Adonai told Moshe' to say to the people, "Although the whole earth is mine, you will be for me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.", He was literally saying that they would all serve in the Temple, even gentiles? That seems to contradict the many commands against any but the Levites serving in the Temple.

[tam]

Peace to you bluethread!

Figuratively, Adonai's people are referred to as a nation of priests, but that would mean that all believers, men and women would be priests... bluethread

I would suggest that this was not meant to be figurative. All of Israel WAS meant to be a holy nation, set apart, and all would have served as kings and priests with Christ. Except that many rejected Him. Hence, the invitation opened up to gentiles as well.

So, when Adonai told Moshe' to say to the people, "Although the whole earth is mine, you will be for me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.", He was literally saying that they would all serve in the Temple, even gentiles?

Not quite. He was not speaking to or about the gentiles at this time. "Although the whole earth is mine, YOU (Israel, the people to whom Moses is speaking) will be for me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation."


Israel would have been the kingdom of priests, the holy nation... and the subjects of the Kingdom would have been from among those who were not Israel.



Consider that it is the entire body of Christ (all Christians - all who are anointed with holy spirit, male or female, gentile or Jew) that will serve as kings and priests in the Kingdom.

They sang a new song, saying, "You are worthy to take the book, and to open its seals: for you were killed, and bought us for God with your blood, out of every tribe, language, people, and nation, and made us kings and priests to our God, and we will reign on earth." Rev 5:9,10

Blessed and holy are those who share in the first resurrection! The second death has no power over them, but they will be priests of God and of Christ, and will reign with Him for a thousand years. Rev 20:6


For this reason, ‘They are before the throne of God and serve Him day and night in His temple; Rev 7:15

That seems to contradict the many commands against any but the Levites serving in the Temple.

Yes, during the time of the Temple and Priesthood. But that temple and priesthood were shadows/copies (physical representations) of of the spiritual things to come.

In which Kingdom there are kings and priests (no longer separated, just as Christ is both King and Priest), as well as subjects (non-Christians who are also invited into the Kingdom based upon the conditions set forth in the parable of the sheep and the goats).


Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

[polonius]

The argument now used that Christ made apostles of men only, only a man can be ordained. But if we follow this logic, although Romans and Greek were in Israel in Christ's time, he only made Jews apostles. So, if the Church is to use parallel reasoning, only Jews can be ordained priests.

One can get too sharp, Polonius. Jesus was free to choose women if he wanted to and for some reason chose not to. The society that he was incarnated into was Jewish society. After his death his influence spread to gentiles and even Britons. He didn't have any American apostles either.

All the same I agree with your observation about the misogyny in Aquinas's Summa. Abrahamic religions do seem to regard women as the root of evil.

RESPONSE: Jesus did not choose women because they were considered inferior in his day. Is that still the case with the Catholic Church.

[marco]

RESPONSE: Jesus did not choose women because they were considered inferior in his day. Is that still the case with the Catholic Church.

It is the message in all Abrahamic religions. A wife is listed with goats, oxen and perhaps gardening tools, things one shouldn't covet. If a Church bases herself on the wisdom of the past, she's hardly likely to be impressed by political correctness. But on the brighter side for women, baby girls are usually not buried alive and I think fewer women are stoned in those countries where God exerts a strong pull. So who knows, women may eventually take on sacerdotal duties in the Church founded by Christ.