Jesus is God - Acts 20:28

[Wootah]

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... ersion=ESV

28 Pay careful attention to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the church of God, which he obtained with his own blood.

So we are to pay careful attention and care for the church of God, which He obtained with his own blood.

Isn't it clear that God obtained the church with his own blood?

[2timothy316]

...
Here’s the verse from the KJV.

28Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Ask yourself this question. Did God purchase the church with His blood?

Have a blessed day!
Kate

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Ex 7:1

So by your logic Moses is part of the trinity?

Uppercase G is used in Heb 1:8 and it's the Father that addressed that to Jesus.

Uppercase didn't exist when the book of Hebrews was written. Uppercase exist when Exodus was written either.

In context of Hebrews 1:9 what do you read? "Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions.” Heb 1:9. Once again, it says Jesus has a God that anoints him. If Jesus was Almighty God already, there would be no need for him to be anointed by his God. How can Jesus who is supposed to be Almighty God already be honored more than his companions? Who are these companions?

What is Heb 1:8 trying to say? Did you know that Hebrews 1:8 is a quote from Pslam 45:6?
"God is your throne forever and evermore; the scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of equity." (The Bible in Living English)
Note the Hebrew text analysis.
https://biblehub.com/text/psalms/45-6.htm

What is God to Jesus? His God is his throne. Or do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too?

Hebrews 1:9 "Therefore God, Your God," this phrase proves that Jesus is God.
And to help make your point clear, It should have been " Therefore God, Your Almighty God, has anointed You..." to prove inequality but it proves otherwise.

Peace.

You didn't answer my question.
Do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too? And based on your new post, was that Hebrew king spoken of in Ps 45:6 equal to Almighty God too? Did you even read Ps 45:6?

The word Elohim in Psa 45:6 name by which the Supreme God has made himself known to the children of men. But Heb 1:8 is applied to Christ. Of which the speaker of the verse is the Father Himself. Yes, they are part of the Trinity.

Thy throne, O God, is for ever - כסאך אלהים עולם ועד kisacha Elohim olam vaed. “O God, thy throne is for ever, and eternal!” The word Elohim here is the very first term or name by which the Supreme God has made himself known to the children of men. See Gen 1:1; and this very verse the apostle, Heb 1:8, has applied to Jesus Christ. On this I shall make a very short remark, but it shall be conclusive: If the apostle did not believe Jesus Christ to be the true and eternal God, he has utterly misapplied this Scripture. (Clarke)

Or Clarke and you have misapplied the scripture. Paul was under the influence of God's Holy Spirit, you are not. You still avoided my questions btw. Don't think I didn't notice. Was the Jewish human king, written about at Ps 45:6 by a person who was under the influence of the holy spirit, Almighty God too? Are there 4 of them now that make up God? Answer or forfeit the debate.

[Capbook]

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Ex 7:1

So by your logic Moses is part of the trinity?

Uppercase G is used in Heb 1:8 and it's the Father that addressed that to Jesus.

Uppercase didn't exist when the book of Hebrews was written. Uppercase exist when Exodus was written either.

In context of Hebrews 1:9 what do you read? "Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions.” Heb 1:9. Once again, it says Jesus has a God that anoints him. If Jesus was Almighty God already, there would be no need for him to be anointed by his God. How can Jesus who is supposed to be Almighty God already be honored more than his companions? Who are these companions?

What is Heb 1:8 trying to say? Did you know that Hebrews 1:8 is a quote from Pslam 45:6?
"God is your throne forever and evermore; the scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of equity." (The Bible in Living English)
Note the Hebrew text analysis.
https://biblehub.com/text/psalms/45-6.htm

What is God to Jesus? His God is his throne. Or do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too?

Hebrews 1:9 "Therefore God, Your God," this phrase proves that Jesus is God.
And to help make your point clear, It should have been " Therefore God, Your Almighty God, has anointed You..." to prove inequality but it proves otherwise.

Peace.

You didn't answer my question.
Do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too? And based on your new post, was that Hebrew king spoken of in Ps 45:6 equal to Almighty God too? Did you even read Ps 45:6?

The word Elohim in Psa 45:6 name by which the Supreme God has made himself known to the children of men. But Heb 1:8 is applied to Christ. Of which the speaker of the verse is the Father Himself. Yes, they are part of the Trinity.

Thy throne, O God, is for ever - כסאך אלהים עולם ועד kisacha Elohim olam vaed. “O God, thy throne is for ever, and eternal!” The word Elohim here is the very first term or name by which the Supreme God has made himself known to the children of men. See Gen 1:1; and this very verse the apostle, Heb 1:8, has applied to Jesus Christ. On this I shall make a very short remark, but it shall be conclusive: If the apostle did not believe Jesus Christ to be the true and eternal God, he has utterly misapplied this Scripture. (Clarke)

Or Clarke and you have misapplied the scripture. Paul was under the influence of God's Holy Spirit, you are not. You still avoided my questions btw. Don't think I didn't notice. Was the Jewish human king, written about at Ps 45:6 by a person who was under the influence of the holy spirit, Almighty God too? Are there 4 of them now that make up God? Answer or forfeit the debate.

You had also misunderstood the Scripture, Jewish sources says that the king mentioned in Psa 45 is the Jewish Messiah. And yes, part of the Trinity. All verses are inspired by the Holy Spirit, human interpretation are not, mine and yours too. Bible verse must be interpreted by Bible verse, Psa 45:6 to Heb 1:8 are in harmony not in contrast as you tried to.

According to classical Jewish sources, Psalm 45 refers to the Jewish Messiah. According to Metzudot, a classical Jewish commentary, the king mentioned in verse 2 is the Jewish Messiah.[2] (Wikipedia)

[2timothy316]

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Ex 7:1

So by your logic Moses is part of the trinity?

Uppercase G is used in Heb 1:8 and it's the Father that addressed that to Jesus.

Uppercase didn't exist when the book of Hebrews was written. Uppercase exist when Exodus was written either.

In context of Hebrews 1:9 what do you read? "Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions.” Heb 1:9. Once again, it says Jesus has a God that anoints him. If Jesus was Almighty God already, there would be no need for him to be anointed by his God. How can Jesus who is supposed to be Almighty God already be honored more than his companions? Who are these companions?

What is Heb 1:8 trying to say? Did you know that Hebrews 1:8 is a quote from Pslam 45:6?
"God is your throne forever and evermore; the scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of equity." (The Bible in Living English)
Note the Hebrew text analysis.
https://biblehub.com/text/psalms/45-6.htm

What is God to Jesus? His God is his throne. Or do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too?

Hebrews 1:9 "Therefore God, Your God," this phrase proves that Jesus is God.
And to help make your point clear, It should have been " Therefore God, Your Almighty God, has anointed You..." to prove inequality but it proves otherwise.

Peace.

You didn't answer my question.
Do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too? And based on your new post, was that Hebrew king spoken of in Ps 45:6 equal to Almighty God too? Did you even read Ps 45:6?

The word Elohim in Psa 45:6 name by which the Supreme God has made himself known to the children of men. But Heb 1:8 is applied to Christ. Of which the speaker of the verse is the Father Himself. Yes, they are part of the Trinity.

Thy throne, O God, is for ever - כסאך אלהים עולם ועד kisacha Elohim olam vaed. “O God, thy throne is for ever, and eternal!” The word Elohim here is the very first term or name by which the Supreme God has made himself known to the children of men. See Gen 1:1; and this very verse the apostle, Heb 1:8, has applied to Jesus Christ. On this I shall make a very short remark, but it shall be conclusive: If the apostle did not believe Jesus Christ to be the true and eternal God, he has utterly misapplied this Scripture. (Clarke)

Or Clarke and you have misapplied the scripture. Paul was under the influence of God's Holy Spirit, you are not. You still avoided my questions btw. Don't think I didn't notice. Was the Jewish human king, written about at Ps 45:6 by a person who was under the influence of the holy spirit, Almighty God too? Are there 4 of them now that make up God? Answer or forfeit the debate.

You had also misunderstood the Scripture, Jewish sources says that the king mentioned in Psa 45 is the Jewish Messiah. And yes, part of the Trinity. All verses are inspired by the Holy Spirit, human interpretation are not, mine and yours too. Bible verse must be interpreted by Bible verse, Psa 45:6 to Heb 1:8 are in harmony not in contrast as you tried to.

According to classical Jewish sources, Psalm 45 refers to the Jewish Messiah. According to Metzudot, a classical Jewish commentary, the king mentioned in verse 2 is the Jewish Messiah.[2] (Wikipedia)

Before it was viewed as a prophecy for the messiah, it was a song for the Davidic king’s marriage to a foreign princess from Tyre in Phoenicia.
https://bible.usccb.org/bible/psalms/45

Bible scholar B. F. Westcott states: “The LXX. admits of two renderings: [ho the·osʹ] can be taken as a vocative in both cases (Thy throne, O God, . . . therefore, O God, Thy God . . . ) or it can be taken as the subject (or the predicate) in the first case (God is Thy throne, or Thy throne is God . . . ), and in apposition to [ho the·osʹ sou] in the second case (Therefore God, even Thy God . . . ). . . . It is scarcely possible that [’Elo·himʹ] in the original can be addressed to the king. The presumption therefore is against the belief that [ho the·osʹ] is a vocative in the LXX. Thus on the whole it seems best to adopt in the first clause the rendering: God is Thy throne (or, Thy throne is God), that is ‘Thy kingdom is founded upon God, the immovable Rock.’”—The Epistle to the Hebrews (London, 1889), pp. 25, 26.

So, again, is this king that married a foreign princess from Tyre part of the trinity? BTW Jews are not trinitarins. The writer of this psalm was Jewish.

[Capbook]

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." Ex 7:1

So by your logic Moses is part of the trinity?

Uppercase G is used in Heb 1:8 and it's the Father that addressed that to Jesus.

Uppercase didn't exist when the book of Hebrews was written. Uppercase exist when Exodus was written either.

In context of Hebrews 1:9 what do you read? "Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions.” Heb 1:9. Once again, it says Jesus has a God that anoints him. If Jesus was Almighty God already, there would be no need for him to be anointed by his God. How can Jesus who is supposed to be Almighty God already be honored more than his companions? Who are these companions?

What is Heb 1:8 trying to say? Did you know that Hebrews 1:8 is a quote from Pslam 45:6?
"God is your throne forever and evermore; the scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of equity." (The Bible in Living English)
Note the Hebrew text analysis.
https://biblehub.com/text/psalms/45-6.htm

What is God to Jesus? His God is his throne. Or do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too?

Hebrews 1:9 "Therefore God, Your God," this phrase proves that Jesus is God.
And to help make your point clear, It should have been " Therefore God, Your Almighty God, has anointed You..." to prove inequality but it proves otherwise.

Peace.

You didn't answer my question.
Do you think that the King that was being written about at Ps 45:6 is part of the trinity too? And based on your new post, was that Hebrew king spoken of in Ps 45:6 equal to Almighty God too? Did you even read Ps 45:6?

The word Elohim in Psa 45:6 name by which the Supreme God has made himself known to the children of men. But Heb 1:8 is applied to Christ. Of which the speaker of the verse is the Father Himself. Yes, they are part of the Trinity.

Thy throne, O God, is for ever - כסאך אלהים עולם ועד kisacha Elohim olam vaed. “O God, thy throne is for ever, and eternal!” The word Elohim here is the very first term or name by which the Supreme God has made himself known to the children of men. See Gen 1:1; and this very verse the apostle, Heb 1:8, has applied to Jesus Christ. On this I shall make a very short remark, but it shall be conclusive: If the apostle did not believe Jesus Christ to be the true and eternal God, he has utterly misapplied this Scripture. (Clarke)

Or Clarke and you have misapplied the scripture. Paul was under the influence of God's Holy Spirit, you are not. You still avoided my questions btw. Don't think I didn't notice. Was the Jewish human king, written about at Ps 45:6 by a person who was under the influence of the holy spirit, Almighty God too? Are there 4 of them now that make up God? Answer or forfeit the debate.

You had also misunderstood the Scripture, Jewish sources says that the king mentioned in Psa 45 is the Jewish Messiah. And yes, part of the Trinity. All verses are inspired by the Holy Spirit, human interpretation are not, mine and yours too. Bible verse must be interpreted by Bible verse, Psa 45:6 to Heb 1:8 are in harmony not in contrast as you tried to.

According to classical Jewish sources, Psalm 45 refers to the Jewish Messiah. According to Metzudot, a classical Jewish commentary, the king mentioned in verse 2 is the Jewish Messiah.[2] (Wikipedia)

Before it was viewed as a prophecy for the messiah, it was a song for the Davidic king’s marriage to a foreign princess from Tyre in Phoenicia.
https://bible.usccb.org/bible/psalms/45

Bible scholar B. F. Westcott states: “The LXX. admits of two renderings: [ho the·osʹ] can be taken as a vocative in both cases (Thy throne, O God, . . . therefore, O God, Thy God . . . ) or it can be taken as the subject (or the predicate) in the first case (God is Thy throne, or Thy throne is God . . . ), and in apposition to [ho the·osʹ sou] in the second case (Therefore God, even Thy God . . . ). . . . It is scarcely possible that [’Elo·himʹ] in the original can be addressed to the king. The presumption therefore is against the belief that [ho the·osʹ] is a vocative in the LXX. Thus on the whole it seems best to adopt in the first clause the rendering: God is Thy throne (or, Thy throne is God), that is ‘Thy kingdom is founded upon God, the immovable Rock.’”—The Epistle to the Hebrews (London, 1889), pp. 25, 26.

So, again, is this king that married a foreign princess from Tyre part of the trinity? BTW Jews are not trinitarins. The writer of this psalm was Jewish.

Yes, the writer of Psalms is Jew, and the one who said it refer to the Jewish Messiah is also a Jew. Jews are the people of God in the OT. I would rather rely more to them than to an English Bishop Westcott. Yes they are part of the Trinity. Jews cannot be Trinitarian as they don't believe Jesus as the Messiah.

[Bible_Student]

Psal. 45:6 is an ode to a human king. It is impossible that it says "Thy throne, O God".

Ergo, it is impossible that Heb. 1:8 says "Thy throne, O God". So, logically, it can only be read here as "Your throne [is] God".

[2timothy316]

Yes, the writer of Psalms is Jew, and the one who said it refer to the Jewish Messiah is also a Jew. Jews are the people of God in the OT. I would rather rely more to them than to an English Bishop Westcott. Yes they are part of the Trinity. Jews cannot be Trinitarian as they don't believe Jesus as the Messiah.

And yet you trust 'wikipedia'? It seems more like some are willing accept anything, including a website that isn't accredited, so long as it fits their dogma.

Anyway, can anyone help me make sense of this post?

3 Jews are referred to here. The writer of Psalm 45, Paul, the writer of Hebrews, and Jesus Christ. The poster accepts all of these people were Jews but claim they don't believe in the messiah...yet they all DO believe in the messiah because two of them wrote about the messiah? Jesus, who was a Jew doesn't believe that he, himself, was the Messiah? Were these writers God breathed or not? Jesus was a Jew, does that mean he wasn't a trinitarian? Seriously, I can't make head or tails of the above post.

[onewithhim]

...
Here’s the verse from the KJV.

28Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Ask yourself this question. Did God purchase the church with His blood?

Have a blessed day!
Kate

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

I explained the even after Jesus went back to heaven he was subordinate to the Father, God. "The head of Christ is God." (I Corinth.11:3) He called the Father "my God" when he was in heaven. The whole book of Revelation was inspired by God to his Son Jesus Christ who was in heaven at that time.

The reference to "God" is speaking of the Father being Christ's power given to him by God. That is what "God is your throne" means, in Heb.1:8. To call Jesus "Lord" is not equating him with God the Father.

[Capbook]

...
Here’s the verse from the KJV.

28Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Ask yourself this question. Did God purchase the church with His blood?

Have a blessed day!
Kate

Thank you and hopefully you also have a blessed day.

I understand the scripture so that Jesus has obtained/earned/purchased the church of God by his blood. Meaning, because of what he did with his life, he earned the position.

And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Phil. 2:8-11

But, even then, God is the highest, as told here:

For, "He put all things in subjection under his feet." But when he says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all.
1 Cor. 15:27-28

Yes, God---the Father---is always superior to the Son and everybody else. Jesus said, "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) That would not just apply to his earthly existence. When he went back to heaven he was still subordinate to the Father. I Corinthians 11:3 show us that "the head of Christ is God," so Jesus has someone higher than he that tells him what to do, as Christ tells his congregation what to do, he being the head of that body. Then from heaven, Jesus said the following that shows that God is higher than he is:

Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God." (KJV)

Clearly God, the Father, is in a superior position to Christ.

I believe Jesus uttered those verses when He was still on earth. In human form He called His Father my God.
How about the Father in heaven called Jesus "God" and "Lord" Heb 1:8 & 10?

I explained the even after Jesus went back to heaven he was subordinate to the Father, God. "The head of Christ is God." (I Corinth.11:3) He called the Father "my God" when he was in heaven. The whole book of Revelation was inspired by God to his Son Jesus Christ who was in heaven at that time.

The reference to "God" is speaking of the Father being Christ's power given to him by God. That is what "God is your throne" means, in Heb.1:8. To call Jesus "Lord" is not equating him with God the Father.

"God is your throne" can never be the correct translation.
See original Greek verse construction below;
1. Throne comes first and the Greek word God follows,
2. The "ho" in between throne and God, I colored blue is not "is".

Heb 1:8 But G1161  unto G4314  the G3588  Son G5207  he saith, Thy G4675  throne, G2362  O God, G2316  is for ever and ever: G1519 G165 G165  a sceptre G4464  of righteousness G2118  is the G3588  sceptre G4464  of thy G4675  kingdom. G932 

Heb 1:8 προς G4314 PREP  δε G1161 CONJ  τον G3588 T-ASM  υιον G5207 N-ASM  ο G3588 T-NSM  θρονος G2362 N-NSM  σου G4771 P-2GS  ο G3588 T-NSM  θεος G2316 N-NSM  εις G1519 PREP  τον G3588 T-ASM  αιωνα G165 N-ASM  του G3588 T-GSM  αιωνος G165 N-GSM  ραβδος G4464 N-NSF  ευθυτητος G2118 N-GSF  η G3588 T-NSF  ραβδος G4464 N-NSF  της G3588 T-GSF  βασιλειας G932 N-GSF  σου G4771 P-2GS 

Heb 1:8 πρὸς δὲ τὸν υἱόν· ὁ θρόνος σου, ὁ Θεός, εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος· ῥάβδος εὐθύτητος ἡ ῥάβδος τῆς βασιλείας σου.