Translation from the Greek

[mataeux]

If a Greek word is translated into English as "X" 37 times but as "Y" only one time, is that 'proof' of deception or just 'evidence'?

Interpretation of the verse using Y opens up a totally different meaning but still allows -barely- the sense of when using X. But using X instead of Y forcefully leads to one conclusion that goes against the preconceived ideas of the translator.

Would an unbiased translator naturally select a word and describe the sense of the word "by a usage not met with elsewhere"?

[McCulloch]

I claim to be a Greek expert specializing in the word "δίκαιος."

There is no expert linguist, in any language, ancient or modern who specializes in just one word. Language does not work that way.