Thought Criminal wrote: My take on it is that any act of interpretation requires us to understand the context and origins of the text.
What type of "interpretation"? Allegorical, radical, descriptive, logical, hermeneutical, which are you referring to of the many types available? All types of interpretations cannot work properly for any religious text, each having different sets of goals. No interpretation
requires the origins of a text, be that religious, a fiction novel, a biography, "unknown author" being accepted in literature where the text stands in admiration regardless of source. Value of a text in literary studies is applied according to the merit of the thoughts expressed in the text. Besides, understanding a context is not necessarily an interpretation. An interpretation could better fit to open dialog between one who understands the context with one who doesn't.
Thought Criminal wrote:For example, I read one argument against the "obvious" interpretation of the Bible to suggest that women must not be allowed to teach men. While I'm not sure if it's true, it did plausibly suggest that the original prohibition was meaningful only in the context of a specific group of women who were the target of the letter, due to the fact that they hadn't yet been indoctrinated thoroughly enough to be trusted with spreading the gospel.
No interpretation was needed except for the one understanding to instruct the one not understanding. Here is the text: 1 Tim. 2:11-14 "Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. [12] But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. [13] For Adam was first formed, then Eve. [14] And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression."
The
basis for Paul's command to the churches was not at all concerning a group of women not qualified to teach. The
basis went all the way back to Adam & Eve in Genesis. That captured all generations and groups of women. An improper "interpretation" of that passage would be to say the Bible declares it's OK for a woman to teach men the Bible as long as they are ordained. That would not be supported anywhere in the Bible.
Your statement is but one example of a skeptic's self generated false assumption of the Bible and intent of Christians sharing the literal truth of it.
Paul not only commanded via letter (1 Tim) to the Church at Ephesus, but to the Corinthian Church a similar command with a different basis that would have applied as well as to the Ephesians. 1 Cor. 14:34-35 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as
also saith the law. [35] And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church."
Thought Criminal wrote:On a deeper level, the origins of the various parts of the Bible -- the who, when, where, and even why -- are all relevant to the question of what the Bible means.
TC
It is apparent to me a lot of those facts would only further confuse atheists here who obviously are too deficient in Bible knowledge to carry on a civil, meaningful discussion, let alone an actual debate. Instead of actual debate, what I read from atheists is how they are personally offended over what the Bible says, as well as what they assume it says. God predicted that.