Understanding Jesus Christ <GOD> the Word

[Zorn]

To understand the Scriptures, we must understand …
what is said, who (or what) it was said about,
when it was said, and the time period it was referring to.
The Lord wants us to believe …
NOT what someone taught us, but what the Scriptures say!

BEFORE the Incarnation

“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (the Father),
and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God (the Father).” (John 1:1-2)
In the beginning … God the Word was actually the Second Person of the Trinity.

DURING the Incarnation

First: God the Holy Spirit performed a miracle in the virgin Mary’s womb …
producing the fetus who would be Jesus Christ/Messiah (Matthew 1:18,20; Luke 1:35).
IMO, Jesus inherited Mary’s sin nature … so He was “fully man”,
but because He also was “fully God” He was able to overcome His sin nature.

Next: God the Word came down from heaven and became flesh-human-Jesus.
“And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us …” (John 1:14)
The Word “became” Jesus (when?) … so, Jesus actually was God the Word.

AFTER the Incarnation

“That which was from the beginning, which we have heard … seen …
concerning the Word of life –- the life was manifested … that eternal life
which was with (God) the Father (in the beginning) and was manifested to us …” (1 John 1:1-2)
The Word (God) was manifested to the world as the God-Man, Jesus Christ.
And so, “… His (Jesus’) name is called The Word of God.” (Revelation 19:13)

“And now, O Father, glorify Me (Jesus) together with Yourself,
with the glory which I had with You before the world was.” (John 17:5)
Jesus is speaking here as the One who He knew He really was (God the Word).

“… that they may know You, the only true God,
and Jesus Christ whom You have sent …” (John 17:3)
Yes, Jesus Christ was sent, but NOT sent from heaven …
He was sent into the world as the God-man.

“Every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is of God.” (John 4:2)
“For many deceivers have gone out into the world who do not
confess Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh.” (2 John 7)
Here John is equating Jesus with God the Word …
who came in the flesh as the God-Man, Jesus Christ.

[onewithhim]

[Replying to Zorn in post #1]
In the Greek at both John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4 = the only 2 spots in NT where more than 1 is called God and god--thus in both spots the true living God is called Ton Theon= THE GOD--both the Word and satan are called Theos = god when in the same paragraph with Ton Theon. It was the only way to show the difference of God and god. Translating is the same both spots-god is correct to the Word. At least 20 translations in history has a god at John 1:1-by Greek scholars.
Because all know there is only one God and in trinity belief the second line in simple English at John 1:1 reads--And God( Word) was with God= impossible. That is more than one God.
These are facts.
Jesus has a God just like us--Psalm 45:7--John 20:17-- Rev 3:12--- God does not have a God.

There is NO indefinite article "a" in the Greek language!
Putting an "a" in John 1:1 is an abomination.

Absolutely not. You are not understanding the rules of translating Greek into English. The languages are not the same. The post by servant1 is correct, and if you'd pay attention to it you would get the gist of it. In Greek, when the Almighty God is referred to, there is the Greek word for "the" before it. "Ton." You will see "the God" in those letters in Greek--"Ton Theon." If the Greek is not referring to THE God---God Almighty---then there is no article before "god." Remember there are different rules for translating Greek into English. If speaking of the one and only true God, there is "ton" before the word "god." (There are no capitalizations either in Greek.) The Greeks understood that when not referring to God Almighty there is no article. Now if we were to translate it word-for-word we would have "and the word was god." No article. No "ton." So to translate into English we assuredly need an article to complete the English translation so that it makes sense in English. We would not say "Snoopy is dog." We would say "Snoopy is A dog. The Greeks didn't need that. They understood that a "god" without the article is NOT the one true God. The presence or lack of the article is what tells the story.

[Capbook]

[Replying to Zorn in post #1]
In the Greek at both John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4 = the only 2 spots in NT where more than 1 is called God and god--thus in both spots the true living God is called Ton Theon= THE GOD--both the Word and satan are called Theos = god when in the same paragraph with Ton Theon. It was the only way to show the difference of God and god. Translating is the same both spots-god is correct to the Word. At least 20 translations in history has a god at John 1:1-by Greek scholars.
Because all know there is only one God and in trinity belief the second line in simple English at John 1:1 reads--And God( Word) was with God= impossible. That is more than one God.
These are facts.
Jesus has a God just like us--Psalm 45:7--John 20:17-- Rev 3:12--- God does not have a God.

There is NO indefinite article "a" in the Greek language!
Putting an "a" in John 1:1 is an abomination.

Absolutely not. You are not understanding the rules of translating Greek into English. The languages are not the same. The post by servant1 is correct, and if you'd pay attention to it you would get the gist of it. In Greek, when the Almighty God is referred to, there is the Greek word for "the" before it. "Ton." You will see "the God" in those letters in Greek--"Ton Theon." If the Greek is not referring to THE God---God Almighty---then there is no article before "god." Remember there are different rules for translating Greek into English. If speaking of the one and only true God, there is "ton" before the word "god." (There are no capitalizations either in Greek.) The Greeks understood that when not referring to God Almighty there is no article. Now if we were to translate it word-for-word we would have "and the word was god." No article. No "ton." So to translate into English we assuredly need an article to complete the English translation so that it makes sense in English. We would not say "Snoopy is dog." We would say "Snoopy is A dog. The Greeks didn't need that. They understood that a "god" without the article is NOT the one true God. The presence or lack of the article is what tells the story.

The original Greek text of John 1:1, In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and God was the word.
I wonder why some translators added "a" where it is not there in the original text. See below all I colored red.

Jhn 1:1 In G1722  the beginning G746  was G1510.7.3  the G3588  word, G3056  and G2532  the G3588  word G3056  was G1510.7.3  with G4314 G3588  God, G2316  and G2532  [4God G2316  3was G1510.7.3  1the G3588  2word]. G3056 

Jhn 1:1 εν G1722  αρχη G746  ην G1510.7.3  ο G3588  λογος G3056  και G2532  ο G3588  λογος G3056  ην G1510.7.3  προς G4314  τον G3588  θεον G2316  και G2532  θεος G2316  ην G1510.7.3  ο G3588  λογος G3056

Jhn 1:1 ᾿Εν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.

[onewithhim]

[Replying to Zorn in post #1]
In the Greek at both John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4 = the only 2 spots in NT where more than 1 is called God and god--thus in both spots the true living God is called Ton Theon= THE GOD--both the Word and satan are called Theos = god when in the same paragraph with Ton Theon. It was the only way to show the difference of God and god. Translating is the same both spots-god is correct to the Word. At least 20 translations in history has a god at John 1:1-by Greek scholars.
Because all know there is only one God and in trinity belief the second line in simple English at John 1:1 reads--And God( Word) was with God= impossible. That is more than one God.
These are facts.
Jesus has a God just like us--Psalm 45:7--John 20:17-- Rev 3:12--- God does not have a God.

There is NO indefinite article "a" in the Greek language!
Putting an "a" in John 1:1 is an abomination.

Absolutely not. You are not understanding the rules of translating Greek into English. The languages are not the same. The post by servant1 is correct, and if you'd pay attention to it you would get the gist of it. In Greek, when the Almighty God is referred to, there is the Greek word for "the" before it. "Ton." You will see "the God" in those letters in Greek--"Ton Theon." If the Greek is not referring to THE God---God Almighty---then there is no article before "god." Remember there are different rules for translating Greek into English. If speaking of the one and only true God, there is "ton" before the word "god." (There are no capitalizations either in Greek.) The Greeks understood that when not referring to God Almighty there is no article. Now if we were to translate it word-for-word we would have "and the word was god." No article. No "ton." So to translate into English we assuredly need an article to complete the English translation so that it makes sense in English. We would not say "Snoopy is dog." We would say "Snoopy is A dog. The Greeks didn't need that. They understood that a "god" without the article is NOT the one true God. The presence or lack of the article is what tells the story.

The original Greek text of John 1:1, In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and God was the word.
I wonder why some translators added "a" where it is not there in the original text. See below all I colored red.

You need not wonder any more. It is explained in my post above.

[Capbook]

[Replying to Zorn in post #1]
In the Greek at both John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4 = the only 2 spots in NT where more than 1 is called God and god--thus in both spots the true living God is called Ton Theon= THE GOD--both the Word and satan are called Theos = god when in the same paragraph with Ton Theon. It was the only way to show the difference of God and god. Translating is the same both spots-god is correct to the Word. At least 20 translations in history has a god at John 1:1-by Greek scholars.
Because all know there is only one God and in trinity belief the second line in simple English at John 1:1 reads--And God( Word) was with God= impossible. That is more than one God.
These are facts.
Jesus has a God just like us--Psalm 45:7--John 20:17-- Rev 3:12--- God does not have a God.

There is NO indefinite article "a" in the Greek language!
Putting an "a" in John 1:1 is an abomination.

Absolutely not. You are not understanding the rules of translating Greek into English. The languages are not the same. The post by servant1 is correct, and if you'd pay attention to it you would get the gist of it. In Greek, when the Almighty God is referred to, there is the Greek word for "the" before it. "Ton." You will see "the God" in those letters in Greek--"Ton Theon." If the Greek is not referring to THE God---God Almighty---then there is no article before "god." Remember there are different rules for translating Greek into English. If speaking of the one and only true God, there is "ton" before the word "god." (There are no capitalizations either in Greek.) The Greeks understood that when not referring to God Almighty there is no article. Now if we were to translate it word-for-word we would have "and the word was god." No article. No "ton." So to translate into English we assuredly need an article to complete the English translation so that it makes sense in English. We would not say "Snoopy is dog." We would say "Snoopy is A dog. The Greeks didn't need that. They understood that a "god" without the article is NOT the one true God. The presence or lack of the article is what tells the story.

The original Greek text of John 1:1, In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and God was the word.
I wonder why some translators added "a" where it is not there in the original text. See below all I colored red.

You need not wonder any more. It is explained in my post above.

Yes, your explanation decide to put an "a" even if it is not there in the original.
Have you wondered what that "a" led to your understanding? To suit the Arians.
It is a big hurdle to experience eternal life not knowing who really Jesus is. (John 17:3)
And seriously, you might be guilty of what Rev 22:18 said.

Rev 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:

[JehovahsWitness]

There is NO indefinite article "a" in the Greek language!
Putting an "a" in John 1:1 is an abomination.

All English translations without exception add indefinite articles to their texts, there is no grammatocally sound reason John 1:1c should be an exception.


JEHOVAH'S WITNESS


Is it ever justifiable to add an "a" [an indefinite article] to a scripture when the word doesn't appear in the original Greeek text?

http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 563#821563
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 859#824859
http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com ... er_21.html

What can be said about the singular anarthrous (without the article) Greek nominative count noun?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 676#867676

How should the English reflect unmodified theos that appears in the greek text without the article?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 585#849585

What can we understand from the word ending theos?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 444#924444

Is it true that one cannot use an indefinite article with a predicate nominative in Greek?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 778#822778
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 579#822579

How do other English translations render predicate nouns on other passages?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 329#924329

Does "Colwell's Rule" shed light on how John1:1 should properly be translated?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 838#822838
http://onlytruegod.org/defense/metzgercolwell.htm
http://fosterheologicalreflections.blog ... n-11c.html



FURTHER READING
http://onlytruegod.org/defense/john1files.htm
http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com ... 11c-a.html
http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com ... notes.html
http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com ... endix.html

[onewithhim]

[Replying to Zorn in post #1]
In the Greek at both John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4 = the only 2 spots in NT where more than 1 is called God and god--thus in both spots the true living God is called Ton Theon= THE GOD--both the Word and satan are called Theos = god when in the same paragraph with Ton Theon. It was the only way to show the difference of God and god. Translating is the same both spots-god is correct to the Word. At least 20 translations in history has a god at John 1:1-by Greek scholars.
Because all know there is only one God and in trinity belief the second line in simple English at John 1:1 reads--And God( Word) was with God= impossible. That is more than one God.
These are facts.
Jesus has a God just like us--Psalm 45:7--John 20:17-- Rev 3:12--- God does not have a God.

There is NO indefinite article "a" in the Greek language!
Putting an "a" in John 1:1 is an abomination.

Absolutely not. You are not understanding the rules of translating Greek into English. The languages are not the same. The post by servant1 is correct, and if you'd pay attention to it you would get the gist of it. In Greek, when the Almighty God is referred to, there is the Greek word for "the" before it. "Ton." You will see "the God" in those letters in Greek--"Ton Theon." If the Greek is not referring to THE God---God Almighty---then there is no article before "god." Remember there are different rules for translating Greek into English. If speaking of the one and only true God, there is "ton" before the word "god." (There are no capitalizations either in Greek.) The Greeks understood that when not referring to God Almighty there is no article. Now if we were to translate it word-for-word we would have "and the word was god." No article. No "ton." So to translate into English we assuredly need an article to complete the English translation so that it makes sense in English. We would not say "Snoopy is dog." We would say "Snoopy is A dog. The Greeks didn't need that. They understood that a "god" without the article is NOT the one true God. The presence or lack of the article is what tells the story.

The original Greek text of John 1:1, In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and God was the word.
I wonder why some translators added "a" where it is not there in the original text. See below all I colored red.

You need not wonder any more. It is explained in my post above.

Yes, your explanation decide to put an "a" even if it is not there in the original.
Have you wondered what that "a" led to your understanding? To suit the Arians.
It is a big hurdle to experience eternal life not knowing who really Jesus is. (John 17:3)
And seriously, you might be guilty of what Rev 22:18 said.

Rev 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:

Please re-read my explanation as to why there is an "a" in the translation from Greek to English. It is a very common practice of the translators.

[armchairscholar]

To understand the Scriptures, we must understand …
what is said, who (or what) it was said about,
when it was said, and the time period it was referring to.
The Lord wants us to believe …
NOT what someone taught us, but what the Scriptures say!

BEFORE the Incarnation

“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (the Father),
and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God (the Father).” (John 1:1-2)
In the beginning … God the Word was actually the Second Person of the Trinity.

DURING the Incarnation

First: God the Holy Spirit performed a miracle in the virgin Mary’s womb …
producing the fetus who would be Jesus Christ/Messiah (Matthew 1:18,20; Luke 1:35).
IMO, Jesus inherited Mary’s sin nature … so He was “fully man”,
but because He also was “fully God” He was able to overcome His sin nature.

Next: God the Word came down from heaven and became flesh-human-Jesus.
“And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us …” (John 1:14)
The Word “became” Jesus (when?) … so, Jesus actually was God the Word.

AFTER the Incarnation

“That which was from the beginning, which we have heard … seen …
concerning the Word of life –- the life was manifested … that eternal life
which was with (God) the Father (in the beginning) and was manifested to us …” (1 John 1:1-2)
The Word (God) was manifested to the world as the God-Man, Jesus Christ.
And so, “… His (Jesus’) name is called The Word of God.” (Revelation 19:13)

“And now, O Father, glorify Me (Jesus) together with Yourself,
with the glory which I had with You before the world was.” (John 17:5)
Jesus is speaking here as the One who He knew He really was (God the Word).

“… that they may know You, the only true God,
and Jesus Christ whom You have sent …” (John 17:3)
Yes, Jesus Christ was sent, but NOT sent from heaven …
He was sent into the world as the God-man.

“Every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is of God.” (John 4:2)
“For many deceivers have gone out into the world who do not
confess Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh.” (2 John 7)
Here John is equating Jesus with God the Word …
who came in the flesh as the God-Man, Jesus Christ.

Interesting theological analysis here. But I notice some issues from both historical and doctrinal perspectives. Although the author makes a good attempt to analyze the incarnation chronologically, they're mixing up some key Catholic teachings about Christ's nature.

The biggest red flag is the statement about Jesus inheriting Mary's sin nature. This contradicts the doctrine of Jesus's sinless nature and Mary's Immaculate Conception. From both a theological and psychological perspective, suggesting Jesus had to "overcome" a sin nature misses the point of His divine nature entirely.

The chronological breakdown (before/during/after incarnation) is actually a helpful way to look at it the author's interpretation of John 17:3 seems to force a modern reading onto an ancient text. I can tell you that early Church fathers had much more nuanced views on these passages.

That said, I appreciate the author's emphasis on reading Scripture carefully and considering context. That's good historical methodology, even if some of their conclusions don't align with traditional Catholic teaching or historical understanding.

Just my two cents as someone who studies both the historical Church and human nature.

[Zorn]

[Replying to armchairscholar in post #17]

I don't care about "key Catholic teachings".
BTW, Jesus instructs us (in one of the Gospels)
to NOT call anyone on earth "Father" or "Master".
And He's not referring to anyone's biological father.
How can the RCC be so anti-Scriptural
as to call millions of their priests "Father"?
Not to mention their Pope.
"The doctrines of men" abound in most churches!
I am "Sola Scriptura" <> Only Scripture.

[Capbook]

[Replying to Zorn in post #1]
In the Greek at both John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4 = the only 2 spots in NT where more than 1 is called God and god--thus in both spots the true living God is called Ton Theon= THE GOD--both the Word and satan are called Theos = god when in the same paragraph with Ton Theon. It was the only way to show the difference of God and god. Translating is the same both spots-god is correct to the Word. At least 20 translations in history has a god at John 1:1-by Greek scholars.
Because all know there is only one God and in trinity belief the second line in simple English at John 1:1 reads--And God( Word) was with God= impossible. That is more than one God.
These are facts.
Jesus has a God just like us--Psalm 45:7--John 20:17-- Rev 3:12--- God does not have a God.

There is NO indefinite article "a" in the Greek language!
Putting an "a" in John 1:1 is an abomination.

Absolutely not. You are not understanding the rules of translating Greek into English. The languages are not the same. The post by servant1 is correct, and if you'd pay attention to it you would get the gist of it. In Greek, when the Almighty God is referred to, there is the Greek word for "the" before it. "Ton." You will see "the God" in those letters in Greek--"Ton Theon." If the Greek is not referring to THE God---God Almighty---then there is no article before "god." Remember there are different rules for translating Greek into English. If speaking of the one and only true God, there is "ton" before the word "god." (There are no capitalizations either in Greek.) The Greeks understood that when not referring to God Almighty there is no article. Now if we were to translate it word-for-word we would have "and the word was god." No article. No "ton." So to translate into English we assuredly need an article to complete the English translation so that it makes sense in English. We would not say "Snoopy is dog." We would say "Snoopy is A dog. The Greeks didn't need that. They understood that a "god" without the article is NOT the one true God. The presence or lack of the article is what tells the story.

The original Greek text of John 1:1, In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and God was the word.
I wonder why some translators added "a" where it is not there in the original text. See below all I colored red.

You need not wonder any more. It is explained in my post above.

Yes, your explanation decide to put an "a" even if it is not there in the original.
Have you wondered what that "a" led to your understanding? To suit the Arians.
It is a big hurdle to experience eternal life not knowing who really Jesus is. (John 17:3)
And seriously, you might be guilty of what Rev 22:18 said.

Rev 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:

Please re-read my explanation as to why there is an "a" in the translation from Greek to English. It is a very common practice of the translators.

I just don't believe it is a very common practice of the translators.
Even text critical translation of Bible you cannot find "a".
Please find Westcott and Hort below.
It may the only one NWT translator doing that.

John 1:1

(ABP+) In G1722  the beginning G746  was G1510.7.3  the G3588  word, G3056  and G2532  the G3588  word G3056  was G1510.7.3  with G4314 G3588  God, G2316  and G2532  [4God G2316  3was G1510.7.3  1the G3588  2word]. G3056 

(ASV) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(BBE) From the first he was the Word, and the Word was in relation with God and was God.

(CEV) In the beginning was the one who is called the Word. The Word was with God and was truly God.

(ERV) Before the world began, the Word was there. The Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(ESV) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(ESV+)  R0 R1 In the beginning was  R2 the Word, and  R3 the Word was with God, and  R4 the Word was God.

(GNB) In the beginning the Word already existed; the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(Greek ABP+) εν G1722  αρχη G746  ην G1510.7.3  ο G3588  λογος G3056  και G2532  ο G3588  λογος G3056  ην G1510.7.3  προς G4314  τον G3588  θεον G2316  και G2532  θεος G2316  ην G1510.7.3  ο G3588  λογος G3056 

(Greek NT) ᾿Εν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.

(Greek NT BYZ+) εν G1722 PREP  αρχη G746 N-DSF  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM  και G2532 CONJ  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  προς G4314 PREP  τον G3588 T-ASM  θεον G2316 N-ASM  και G2532 CONJ  θεος G2316 N-NSM  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM 

(Greek NT TR) εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και θεος ην ο λογος

(Greek NT TR+) εν G1722 PREP  αρχη G746 N-DSF  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM  και G2532 CONJ  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  προς G4314 PREP  τον G3588 T-ASM  θεον G2316 N-ASM  και G2532 CONJ  θεος G2316 N-NSM  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM 

(Greek NT WH+) εν G1722 PREP  αρχη G746 N-DSF  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM  και G2532 CONJ  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  προς G4314 PREP  τον G3588 T-ASM  θεον G2316 N-ASM  και G2532 CONJ  θεος G2316 N-NSM  ην G1510 V-IAI-3S  ο G3588 T-NSM  λογος G3056 N-NSM 

(GW) In the beginning the Word already existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(Hebrew OLNT) בראשית היה הדבר, והדבר היה עם האלוהים, ואלוהים היה הדבר.

(ISV) In the beginning, the Word existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(KJV) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(KJV+) In G1722  the beginning G746  was G2258  the G3588  Word, G3056  and G2532  the G3588  Word G3056  was G2258  with G4314  God, G2316  and G2532  the G3588  Word G3056  was G2258  God. G2316 

(LITV) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(LSV) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God;

(MKJV) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(UASV+) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. N1 

(YLT) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God;

[Bible_Student]

The criticism against the Witnesses regarding the use of the indefinite article in "a god" in John 1:1 is illogical.

In Acts 28:6, the same article appears with the same noun in all the major English translations I've reviewed. Some of them here:

ESV
They were waiting for him to swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But when they had waited a long time and saw no misfortune come to him, they changed their minds and said that he was a god.

DARBY
But they expected that he would have swollen or fallen down suddenly dead. But when they had expected a long time and saw nothing unusual happen to him, changing their opinion, they said he was a god.

KJV
Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god.

ASV
But they expected that he would have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but when they were long in expectation and beheld nothing amiss came to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god.