Gods name

[servant1]

Jesus, in the Lords prayer shows 100% that his Fathers name is the #1 issue for all involved. Yet the majority of religions that claim to be Christian use altered translations that have removed Jesus' Fathers name in over 7000 places. Why? God put his name in his real bible because he wants it there. Its his adversary who wanted it removed. WHY? To mislead all using the altered translations. So why are 99% of the religions that claim to be Christian using altered translations that mislead? And WHY? since in the OT there are so many places listing the importance of Gods name. Here are a few:
Psalm 99:3-Praise his great name
99:6- Praise his name
100:4-Praise his name
103:1- Let everything in me praise his name
105:1-Give thanks to JAH( Jehovah) call on his name
Exodus 9:16- Have name declared in all the Earth
Rom 10:13-14- Name must be used
1Kings 8:43-Name must be known by all
Now you see Why Gods adversary had Gods name removed=to mislead.
Only false religions are using the altered translations.
Do you fear standing up for Jehovah's name?

[onewithhim]

Jesus, in the Lords prayer shows 100% that his Fathers name is the #1 issue for all involved. Yet the majority of religions that claim to be Christian use altered translations that have removed Jesus' Fathers name in over 7000 places. Why? God put his name in his real bible because he wants it there. Its his adversary who wanted it removed. WHY? To mislead all using the altered translations. So why are 99% of the religions that claim to be Christian using altered translations that mislead? And WHY? since in the OT there are so many places listing the importance of Gods name. Here are a few:
Psalm 99:3-Praise his great name
99:6- Praise his name
100:4-Praise his name
103:1- Let everything in me praise his name
105:1-Give thanks to JAH( Jehovah) call on his name
Exodus 9:16- Have name declared in all the Earth
Rom 10:13-14- Name must be used
1Kings 8:43-Name must be known by all
Now you see Why Gods adversary had Gods name removed=to mislead.
Only false religions are using the altered translations.
Do you fear standing up for Jehovah's name?

The proper name of God the Tetragrammaton was unknown until 1520 pronounced as Jehovah per BDB lexicon.
Jehovah is a Latinization of the Hebrew יְהֹוָה‎ Yəhōwā, one vocalization of the Tetragrammaton יהוה‎ (YHWH).
I prefer to call the Almighty, Father.

But what if the Almighty wants us to use His name? He had it included in the Hebrew texts around 7,000 times, in the form of the Tetragrammaton. He said at Exodus 3:15: "And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Jehovah the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name forever, and this is my memorial unto all generations." (American Standard Version)

It looks like He would like to be known by His name. Any way we want to pronounce it is fine with Him. Even if we speak each letter of the Tetragrammaton.

But that's not what the original Greek text said, see below.
And besides ASV NT was just publish in 1900.

It's not in Greek. The verse is in Hebrew. (Exodus 3:15, American Standard Version) And so what if the ASV was translated in 1901. Does that make it somehow below scrutiny? The King James Version was translated in 1611. Do you use the KJV at all? It hardly matters when a version was translated. If what they are saying is truthful, then they are fine to study.

Yes, I do use KJV as it has its Strong Concordance and also other translation but for me it would be better if we come to the original Hebrew or Greek that we may find and see the difference. And why they are different, if they interpret in two direction, it would be that one is correct and the other is not, or one is bias and the other is not.
Below is the text of Ex 3:15 in KJV, and below it is the original Hebrew of it. You will find that "LORD God" is there and not what you said as it just comes in 1520 AD.

Exo 3:15 And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.

Exo 3:15 And God H430  said H559  moreover H5750  unto H413  Moses, H4872  Thus H3541  shalt thou say H559  unto H413  the children H1121  of Israel, H3478  The LORD H3068  God H430  of your fathers, H1  the God H430  of Abraham, H85  the God H430  of Isaac, H3327  and the God H430  of Jacob, H3290  hath sent H7971  me unto H413  you: this H2088  is my name H8034  for ever, H5769  and this H2088  is my memorial H2143  unto all generations. H1755 H1755 

Exo 3:15 ויאמר H559  עוד H5750  אלהים H430  אל H413  משׁה H4872  כה H3541  תאמר H559  אל H413  בני H1121  ישׂראל H3478  יהוה H3068  אלהי H430  אבתיכם H1  אלהי H430  אברהם H85  אלהי H430  יצחק H3327  ואלהי H430  יעקב H3290  שׁלחני H7971  אליכם H413  זה H2088  שׁמי H8034  לעלם H5769 

We know that it is Jehovah whose name will be remembered forever. Remember that wherever LORD appears in all capital letters, that is where the name of God appears in the original Hebrew (or Aramaic). So it actually says: "And God saith again unto Moses, 'Thus dost thou say unto the sons of Israel. JEHOVAH, God of your forefathers, God of Abraham, God of Isaac, and God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you; that is my name --to the age, and this is my memorial, to generation--generation.'" (Young's Literal Translation; the American Standard Version; the Living Bible; the Jerusalem Bible; the Divine Name King James Bible.)

As Christian, may I know if you follow Jesus teaching of what manner we had to pray? (Mat 6:9)
Did He mention the Tetragrammaton?

He did in that he said, "Thy name be 'hallowed,' or, sanctified. He had to be referring to his Father's actual name---translated commonly as "Jehovah." (See Psalm 83:18, KJV) The Tetragrammaton appears in Psalm 83:18 in the original language.

[Capbook]

Jesus, in the Lords prayer shows 100% that his Fathers name is the #1 issue for all involved. Yet the majority of religions that claim to be Christian use altered translations that have removed Jesus' Fathers name in over 7000 places. Why? God put his name in his real bible because he wants it there. Its his adversary who wanted it removed. WHY? To mislead all using the altered translations. So why are 99% of the religions that claim to be Christian using altered translations that mislead? And WHY? since in the OT there are so many places listing the importance of Gods name. Here are a few:
Psalm 99:3-Praise his great name
99:6- Praise his name
100:4-Praise his name
103:1- Let everything in me praise his name
105:1-Give thanks to JAH( Jehovah) call on his name
Exodus 9:16- Have name declared in all the Earth
Rom 10:13-14- Name must be used
1Kings 8:43-Name must be known by all
Now you see Why Gods adversary had Gods name removed=to mislead.
Only false religions are using the altered translations.
Do you fear standing up for Jehovah's name?

The proper name of God the Tetragrammaton was unknown until 1520 pronounced as Jehovah per BDB lexicon.
Jehovah is a Latinization of the Hebrew יְהֹוָה‎ Yəhōwā, one vocalization of the Tetragrammaton יהוה‎ (YHWH).
I prefer to call the Almighty, Father.

But what if the Almighty wants us to use His name? He had it included in the Hebrew texts around 7,000 times, in the form of the Tetragrammaton. He said at Exodus 3:15: "And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Jehovah the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name forever, and this is my memorial unto all generations." (American Standard Version)

It looks like He would like to be known by His name. Any way we want to pronounce it is fine with Him. Even if we speak each letter of the Tetragrammaton.

But that's not what the original Greek text said, see below.
And besides ASV NT was just publish in 1900.

It's not in Greek. The verse is in Hebrew. (Exodus 3:15, American Standard Version) And so what if the ASV was translated in 1901. Does that make it somehow below scrutiny? The King James Version was translated in 1611. Do you use the KJV at all? It hardly matters when a version was translated. If what they are saying is truthful, then they are fine to study.

Yes, I do use KJV as it has its Strong Concordance and also other translation but for me it would be better if we come to the original Hebrew or Greek that we may find and see the difference. And why they are different, if they interpret in two direction, it would be that one is correct and the other is not, or one is bias and the other is not.
Below is the text of Ex 3:15 in KJV, and below it is the original Hebrew of it. You will find that "LORD God" is there and not what you said as it just comes in 1520 AD.

Exo 3:15 And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.

Exo 3:15 And God H430  said H559  moreover H5750  unto H413  Moses, H4872  Thus H3541  shalt thou say H559  unto H413  the children H1121  of Israel, H3478  The LORD H3068  God H430  of your fathers, H1  the God H430  of Abraham, H85  the God H430  of Isaac, H3327  and the God H430  of Jacob, H3290  hath sent H7971  me unto H413  you: this H2088  is my name H8034  for ever, H5769  and this H2088  is my memorial H2143  unto all generations. H1755 H1755 

Exo 3:15 ויאמר H559  עוד H5750  אלהים H430  אל H413  משׁה H4872  כה H3541  תאמר H559  אל H413  בני H1121  ישׂראל H3478  יהוה H3068  אלהי H430  אבתיכם H1  אלהי H430  אברהם H85  אלהי H430  יצחק H3327  ואלהי H430  יעקב H3290  שׁלחני H7971  אליכם H413  זה H2088  שׁמי H8034  לעלם H5769 

We know that it is Jehovah whose name will be remembered forever. Remember that wherever LORD appears in all capital letters, that is where the name of God appears in the original Hebrew (or Aramaic). So it actually says: "And God saith again unto Moses, 'Thus dost thou say unto the sons of Israel. JEHOVAH, God of your forefathers, God of Abraham, God of Isaac, and God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you; that is my name --to the age, and this is my memorial, to generation--generation.'" (Young's Literal Translation; the American Standard Version; the Living Bible; the Jerusalem Bible; the Divine Name King James Bible.)

As Christian, may I know if you follow Jesus teaching of what manner we had to pray? (Mat 6:9)
Did He mention the Tetragrammaton?

He did in that he said, "Thy name be 'hallowed,' or, sanctified. He had to be referring to his Father's actual name---translated commonly as "Jehovah." (See Psalm 83:18, KJV) The Tetragrammaton appears in Psalm 83:18 in the original language.

Jesus said, "pray like this", did you pray like what Jesus said? Not to mention the personal name of the Father?
Or you do your own, not obeying the example Jesus gave us.
As Christian, defined as followers of Christ.

Mat 6:9 Pray then like this: “Our Father in heaven, hallowed be your name. (ESV)

ὄνομα onoma
Thayer Definition:
1) name: univ. of proper names
2) the name is used for everything which the name covers, everything the thought or feeling of which is aroused in the mind by mentioning, hearing, remembering, the name, i.e. for one’s rank, authority, interests, pleasure, command, excellences, deeds etc.
3) persons reckoned up by name
4) the cause or reason named: on this account, because he suffers as a Christian, for this reason

[onewithhim]

Jesus, in the Lords prayer shows 100% that his Fathers name is the #1 issue for all involved. Yet the majority of religions that claim to be Christian use altered translations that have removed Jesus' Fathers name in over 7000 places. Why? God put his name in his real bible because he wants it there. Its his adversary who wanted it removed. WHY? To mislead all using the altered translations. So why are 99% of the religions that claim to be Christian using altered translations that mislead? And WHY? since in the OT there are so many places listing the importance of Gods name. Here are a few:
Psalm 99:3-Praise his great name
99:6- Praise his name
100:4-Praise his name
103:1- Let everything in me praise his name
105:1-Give thanks to JAH( Jehovah) call on his name
Exodus 9:16- Have name declared in all the Earth
Rom 10:13-14- Name must be used
1Kings 8:43-Name must be known by all
Now you see Why Gods adversary had Gods name removed=to mislead.
Only false religions are using the altered translations.
Do you fear standing up for Jehovah's name?

The proper name of God the Tetragrammaton was unknown until 1520 pronounced as Jehovah per BDB lexicon.
Jehovah is a Latinization of the Hebrew יְהֹוָה‎ Yəhōwā, one vocalization of the Tetragrammaton יהוה‎ (YHWH).
I prefer to call the Almighty, Father.

But what if the Almighty wants us to use His name? He had it included in the Hebrew texts around 7,000 times, in the form of the Tetragrammaton. He said at Exodus 3:15: "And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Jehovah the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name forever, and this is my memorial unto all generations." (American Standard Version)

It looks like He would like to be known by His name. Any way we want to pronounce it is fine with Him. Even if we speak each letter of the Tetragrammaton.

But that's not what the original Greek text said, see below.
And besides ASV NT was just publish in 1900.

It's not in Greek. The verse is in Hebrew. (Exodus 3:15, American Standard Version) And so what if the ASV was translated in 1901. Does that make it somehow below scrutiny? The King James Version was translated in 1611. Do you use the KJV at all? It hardly matters when a version was translated. If what they are saying is truthful, then they are fine to study.

Yes, I do use KJV as it has its Strong Concordance and also other translation but for me it would be better if we come to the original Hebrew or Greek that we may find and see the difference. And why they are different, if they interpret in two direction, it would be that one is correct and the other is not, or one is bias and the other is not.
Below is the text of Ex 3:15 in KJV, and below it is the original Hebrew of it. You will find that "LORD God" is there and not what you said as it just comes in 1520 AD.

Exo 3:15 And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.

Exo 3:15 And God H430  said H559  moreover H5750  unto H413  Moses, H4872  Thus H3541  shalt thou say H559  unto H413  the children H1121  of Israel, H3478  The LORD H3068  God H430  of your fathers, H1  the God H430  of Abraham, H85  the God H430  of Isaac, H3327  and the God H430  of Jacob, H3290  hath sent H7971  me unto H413  you: this H2088  is my name H8034  for ever, H5769  and this H2088  is my memorial H2143  unto all generations. H1755 H1755 

Exo 3:15 ויאמר H559  עוד H5750  אלהים H430  אל H413  משׁה H4872  כה H3541  תאמר H559  אל H413  בני H1121  ישׂראל H3478  יהוה H3068  אלהי H430  אבתיכם H1  אלהי H430  אברהם H85  אלהי H430  יצחק H3327  ואלהי H430  יעקב H3290  שׁלחני H7971  אליכם H413  זה H2088  שׁמי H8034  לעלם H5769 

We know that it is Jehovah whose name will be remembered forever. Remember that wherever LORD appears in all capital letters, that is where the name of God appears in the original Hebrew (or Aramaic). So it actually says: "And God saith again unto Moses, 'Thus dost thou say unto the sons of Israel. JEHOVAH, God of your forefathers, God of Abraham, God of Isaac, and God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you; that is my name --to the age, and this is my memorial, to generation--generation.'" (Young's Literal Translation; the American Standard Version; the Living Bible; the Jerusalem Bible; the Divine Name King James Bible.)

As Christian, may I know if you follow Jesus teaching of what manner we had to pray? (Mat 6:9)
Did He mention the Tetragrammaton?

He did in that he said, "Thy name be 'hallowed,' or, sanctified. He had to be referring to his Father's actual name---translated commonly as "Jehovah." (See Psalm 83:18, KJV) The Tetragrammaton appears in Psalm 83:18 in the original language.

Jesus said, "pray like this", did you pray like what Jesus said? Not to mention the personal name of the Father?
Or you do your own, not obeying the example Jesus gave us.
As Christian, defined as followers of Christ.

Mat 6:9 Pray then like this: “Our Father in heaven, hallowed be your name. (ESV)

ὄνομα onoma
Thayer Definition:
1) name: univ. of proper names
2) the name is used for everything which the name covers, everything the thought or feeling of which is aroused in the mind by mentioning, hearing, remembering, the name, i.e. for one’s rank, authority, interests, pleasure, command, excellences, deeds etc.
3) persons reckoned up by name
4) the cause or reason named: on this account, because he suffers as a Christian, for this reason

How can Jesus refer to his Father's name and yet resist using it? I pray to the Father, and I use His name, just as I use the name of Jesus at the end of my prayers. Jesus said that anything we ask God in his (Jesus') name he will do it. That is directly why we say "in Jesus' name" at the end of our prayers. Further, Jesus would hardly tell his disciples not to use the Father's name when he himself said he made the Father's name known and will continue to make it known. (John 17:6,26)

[Capbook]

The proper name of God the Tetragrammaton was unknown until 1520 pronounced as Jehovah per BDB lexicon.
Jehovah is a Latinization of the Hebrew יְהֹוָה‎ Yəhōwā, one vocalization of the Tetragrammaton יהוה‎ (YHWH).
I prefer to call the Almighty, Father.

But what if the Almighty wants us to use His name? He had it included in the Hebrew texts around 7,000 times, in the form of the Tetragrammaton. He said at Exodus 3:15: "And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Jehovah the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name forever, and this is my memorial unto all generations." (American Standard Version)

It looks like He would like to be known by His name. Any way we want to pronounce it is fine with Him. Even if we speak each letter of the Tetragrammaton.

But that's not what the original Greek text said, see below.
And besides ASV NT was just publish in 1900.

It's not in Greek. The verse is in Hebrew. (Exodus 3:15, American Standard Version) And so what if the ASV was translated in 1901. Does that make it somehow below scrutiny? The King James Version was translated in 1611. Do you use the KJV at all? It hardly matters when a version was translated. If what they are saying is truthful, then they are fine to study.

Yes, I do use KJV as it has its Strong Concordance and also other translation but for me it would be better if we come to the original Hebrew or Greek that we may find and see the difference. And why they are different, if they interpret in two direction, it would be that one is correct and the other is not, or one is bias and the other is not.
Below is the text of Ex 3:15 in KJV, and below it is the original Hebrew of it. You will find that "LORD God" is there and not what you said as it just comes in 1520 AD.

Exo 3:15 And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.

Exo 3:15 And God H430  said H559  moreover H5750  unto H413  Moses, H4872  Thus H3541  shalt thou say H559  unto H413  the children H1121  of Israel, H3478  The LORD H3068  God H430  of your fathers, H1  the God H430  of Abraham, H85  the God H430  of Isaac, H3327  and the God H430  of Jacob, H3290  hath sent H7971  me unto H413  you: this H2088  is my name H8034  for ever, H5769  and this H2088  is my memorial H2143  unto all generations. H1755 H1755 

Exo 3:15 ויאמר H559  עוד H5750  אלהים H430  אל H413  משׁה H4872  כה H3541  תאמר H559  אל H413  בני H1121  ישׂראל H3478  יהוה H3068  אלהי H430  אבתיכם H1  אלהי H430  אברהם H85  אלהי H430  יצחק H3327  ואלהי H430  יעקב H3290  שׁלחני H7971  אליכם H413  זה H2088  שׁמי H8034  לעלם H5769 

We know that it is Jehovah whose name will be remembered forever. Remember that wherever LORD appears in all capital letters, that is where the name of God appears in the original Hebrew (or Aramaic). So it actually says: "And God saith again unto Moses, 'Thus dost thou say unto the sons of Israel. JEHOVAH, God of your forefathers, God of Abraham, God of Isaac, and God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you; that is my name --to the age, and this is my memorial, to generation--generation.'" (Young's Literal Translation; the American Standard Version; the Living Bible; the Jerusalem Bible; the Divine Name King James Bible.)

As Christian, may I know if you follow Jesus teaching of what manner we had to pray? (Mat 6:9)
Did He mention the Tetragrammaton?

He did in that he said, "Thy name be 'hallowed,' or, sanctified. He had to be referring to his Father's actual name---translated commonly as "Jehovah." (See Psalm 83:18, KJV) The Tetragrammaton appears in Psalm 83:18 in the original language.

Jesus said, "pray like this", did you pray like what Jesus said? Not to mention the personal name of the Father?
Or you do your own, not obeying the example Jesus gave us.
As Christian, defined as followers of Christ.

Mat 6:9 Pray then like this: “Our Father in heaven, hallowed be your name. (ESV)

ὄνομα onoma
Thayer Definition:
1) name: univ. of proper names
2) the name is used for everything which the name covers, everything the thought or feeling of which is aroused in the mind by mentioning, hearing, remembering, the name, i.e. for one’s rank, authority, interests, pleasure, command, excellences, deeds etc.
3) persons reckoned up by name
4) the cause or reason named: on this account, because he suffers as a Christian, for this reason

How can Jesus refer to his Father's name and yet resist using it? I pray to the Father, and I use His name, just as I use the name of Jesus at the end of my prayers. Jesus said that anything we ask God in his (Jesus') name he will do it. That is directly why we say "in Jesus' name" at the end of our prayers. Further, Jesus would hardly tell his disciples not to use the Father's name when he himself said he made the Father's name known and will continue to make it known. (John 17:6,26)

Did ever Jesus mentioned the Tetragrammaton?

[onewithhim]

But what if the Almighty wants us to use His name? He had it included in the Hebrew texts around 7,000 times, in the form of the Tetragrammaton. He said at Exodus 3:15: "And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Jehovah the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name forever, and this is my memorial unto all generations." (American Standard Version)

It looks like He would like to be known by His name. Any way we want to pronounce it is fine with Him. Even if we speak each letter of the Tetragrammaton.

Yes, I think it is logical to conclude that Jesus referred to the Tetragrammaton when speaking about his Father. (John 17:6,26) And of course he knew just how to pronounce it in Hebrew.

[Capbook]

[quote=onewithhim post_id=1162745 time=1736789112 user_id=12805

Yes, I think it is logical to conclude that Jesus referred to the Tetragrammaton when speaking about his Father. (John 17:6,26) And of course he knew just how to pronounce it in Hebrew.
[/quote]

Yes, Jesus referred the "name" to the Father but did not mentioned the Tetragrammaton.