Jehovah's Witnesses: The use of "Lord" in the NWT
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Jehovah's Witnesses: The use of "Lord" in the NWT
Post #1In the New World's Translation when one reads the word "Lord" in the New Testament does it refer to the Father or to the Lord Jesus?
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Re: Jehovah's Witnesses: The use of "Lord" in the
Post #2[Replying to post 1 by Faber]
That would depend on the context. The title Lord of itself can refer to YHWH, Jesus or indeed it might refer to false God (1 Cor 8:5) or even a human (1 Pet 3:6; Col 4:1). The title "Lord" (Gr. kuros/kurios) is used extensively in scripture.
JW
Further reading (blue letter)
https://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/don ... t_1307.cfm
That would depend on the context. The title Lord of itself can refer to YHWH, Jesus or indeed it might refer to false God (1 Cor 8:5) or even a human (1 Pet 3:6; Col 4:1). The title "Lord" (Gr. kuros/kurios) is used extensively in scripture.
JW
New Living Translation
"Masters (kurios) , be just and fair to your slaves. Remember that you also have a Master (kurios) --in heaven" - Col 4:1
Further reading (blue letter)
https://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/don ... t_1307.cfm
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Post #4
There are no capital letters in Greek or Hebrew; capitalization rest entirely at the discretion of the translator and would be used depending on the context. In the New World Translation Lord with an initial Capital is used for BOTH Jehovah and Jesus.Faber wrote: In the passages you cited "Lord" is not capitalized.
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Post #6
[Replying to post 5 by Faber]
The context will then be the determinator. If one reads the context it is usually clear who is being referred to. Using a bible that has not replaced the Divine Name is also helpful.
JW
The context will then be the determinator. If one reads the context it is usually clear who is being referred to. Using a bible that has not replaced the Divine Name is also helpful.
JW
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Post #8
[Replying to post 7 by Faber]
Yes, not clear doesn't mean undeterminable, simply that it may take a little more effort. The effort pays off in an accurate reading.
Yes, not clear doesn't mean undeterminable, simply that it may take a little more effort. The effort pays off in an accurate reading.
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
Post #9
1. If a person disagreed with the Watchtower just one time in reference to whom the "Lord" applies (The Father or the Son) would that mean the person is reading it (as in understanding it) inaccurately?
2. Since having this accurate reading is very important why doesn't the Watchtower be more specific with quite a few passages where the "Lord" appears as to whom it specifically is in reference to?
3. Does the "Lord" refer to the Father or to the Lord Jesus?
Acts 5:14
Acts 9:35
Acts 9:42
Acts 10:14
Acts 20:19
Romans 10:12
1 Corinthians 7:35
Ephesians 5:8
Colossians 3:20
2 Timothy 2:22
2 Timothy 2:24
2 Timothy 4:17
2 Timothy 4:18
2. Since having this accurate reading is very important why doesn't the Watchtower be more specific with quite a few passages where the "Lord" appears as to whom it specifically is in reference to?
3. Does the "Lord" refer to the Father or to the Lord Jesus?
Acts 5:14
Acts 9:35
Acts 9:42
Acts 10:14
Acts 20:19
Romans 10:12
1 Corinthians 7:35
Ephesians 5:8
Colossians 3:20
2 Timothy 2:22
2 Timothy 2:24
2 Timothy 4:17
2 Timothy 4:18
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Post #10
[Replying to post 9 by Faber]
2. Since having this accurate reading is very important why doesn't the Watchtower be more specific with quite a few passages where the "Lord" appears as to whom it specifically is in reference to?
Because a careful reading (which Watchtower readers are encouraged to do) of the verses themselves means the identity of the subject in said verses are self evident. The Watchtower of June 1, 1994 p. 28 gave an extensive analysis on verses where clarification might (due often to negligent translation of those that remove the Divine name from its rightful place in scripture) be helpful. That said however, the publishers of the Watchtower encourage its readership to use their own powers of discernment when reading the bible and therefore do not see the need to explain every word therein.
3. Does the "Lord" refer to the Father or to the Lord Jesus?
Generally when Luke or Paul refer to "the Lord"they are speaking about Jesus, with the exception of the following from your list: Romans 10:12 (where Paul quotes Joel 2:32), Ephesians 5:8, where Paul reference God as pronouncing children of wrath and conversely of the light, 2 Timothy 2:22 also referencing the appointment and preoccupatons of those in God's household (see verse 19) and 2 Timothy 2:24, ditto.
2. Since having this accurate reading is very important why doesn't the Watchtower be more specific with quite a few passages where the "Lord" appears as to whom it specifically is in reference to?
Because a careful reading (which Watchtower readers are encouraged to do) of the verses themselves means the identity of the subject in said verses are self evident. The Watchtower of June 1, 1994 p. 28 gave an extensive analysis on verses where clarification might (due often to negligent translation of those that remove the Divine name from its rightful place in scripture) be helpful. That said however, the publishers of the Watchtower encourage its readership to use their own powers of discernment when reading the bible and therefore do not see the need to explain every word therein.
3. Does the "Lord" refer to the Father or to the Lord Jesus?
Generally when Luke or Paul refer to "the Lord"they are speaking about Jesus, with the exception of the following from your list: Romans 10:12 (where Paul quotes Joel 2:32), Ephesians 5:8, where Paul reference God as pronouncing children of wrath and conversely of the light, 2 Timothy 2:22 also referencing the appointment and preoccupatons of those in God's household (see verse 19) and 2 Timothy 2:24, ditto.
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8