I would like to know, what Jews think about the New Covenant that is introduced in the book of Jeremiah?
Behold, the days come, says Yahweh, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they broke, although I was a husband to them, says Yahweh. But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says Yahweh: I will put my law in their inward parts, and in their heart will I write it; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people: and they shall teach no more every man his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, Know Yahweh; for they shall all know me, from the least of them to the greatest of them, says Yahweh: for I will forgive their iniquity, and their sin will I remember no more.
Jeremiah 31:31-34
New Covenant (Jeremiah 31:31-34)
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Post #11
[Replying to post 10 by bluethread]
What now? The word covenant is clearly in the verse and in the context and in the OT text from which the author draws.
And forgiveness of sins was redemptive in the OT sacrifices although I can only find instances of sins committed in ignorance.
The author only claims the sacrifices could not cleanse the conscience of the sinner meaning the sinner while receiving forgiveness still retained his inner nature. The author claims the superior sacrifice of Christ will do what was prophesied in the OT regarding the circumcision of the heart into perfect understanding , obedience and after being absolved of the sins committed be rendered perfectly righteous and forever more guilt free. Not because the believer has a handy use when needed sacrifice in Christ but because the sinner sins no more.
There is in the OT an instance were the suffering servant is said to have taken the punishment of sinners onto himself.
Of course the concept is completely at odds with the legal prescription of the Law.
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?se ... ersion=NIV
Maybe because it portrays the suffering servant as less than divine?
What now? The word covenant is clearly in the verse and in the context and in the OT text from which the author draws.
And forgiveness of sins was redemptive in the OT sacrifices although I can only find instances of sins committed in ignorance.
The author only claims the sacrifices could not cleanse the conscience of the sinner meaning the sinner while receiving forgiveness still retained his inner nature. The author claims the superior sacrifice of Christ will do what was prophesied in the OT regarding the circumcision of the heart into perfect understanding , obedience and after being absolved of the sins committed be rendered perfectly righteous and forever more guilt free. Not because the believer has a handy use when needed sacrifice in Christ but because the sinner sins no more.
There is in the OT an instance were the suffering servant is said to have taken the punishment of sinners onto himself.
Of course the concept is completely at odds with the legal prescription of the Law.
In fact the whole chapter could be used to support Christianity and yet their is hardly a mention of it in the NT..Isaiah 53:5
But he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was on him, and by his wounds we are healed.
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?se ... ersion=NIV
Maybe because it portrays the suffering servant as less than divine?