Can Jesus lie?

[placebofactor]

Jesus never lied, nor could he. To be untruthful is to be deceitful. The Lord’s own words always agreed with his deeds and with actuality. Truth is shown to be reality, based on God’s revelations. When Jesus was asked concerning his return, he responded to the question with, “No man knows, not the Son but the Father.” Was he speaking the truth? Answer, "Of course he was."

Question: Why didn’t he know? To draw a proper answer to the question, three factors need to be united into one answer: God’s foreknowledge, our hope, and Jesus speaking the truth. When the question was asked, the Jews were under the heavy hand of the Romans and the corrupt Jewish religious leaders.

Now, what if Jesus had been told by the Father the exact day and hour of his return? I am sure the disciples would have asked him many more questions concerning the future. If asked, and he had been given the answer, he would have had to tell them about men like Nero, Diocletian, and Galerius, and how Christians would be threatened, imprisoned, tortured, and put in the Colosseum for sport.  

He would have had to tell them about the future Holy Roman Empire led by the Popes of Rome. He would have had to tell them about their cruelty against believers. How the Roman church would imprison tens of thousands, then torture and murder them. He would have had to reveal to them if asked about their methods of torture and murder. About how thousands would be beheaded, suffer the smashing of bones, boiling in water, dragging, being skinned alive, starvation, and about those who would be wrapped in bloody animal skins and fed to wild dogs.

And after this, would come the persecution and murder of Christians by the nations of Islam. About Nazi Germany, the holocaust.

Now let’s bring this all to a conclusion. If Jesus had been told of the day and hour of his return, and if then asked, he would never have lied. He would have told them about all the above future tyrants and what their future generation of Christians would suffer. And by the way, he would have to tell them, “It’s going to be another 2000 years before I return.”

If these things had been told the disciples on the Mt. of Olives, and they had written in their gospels of these things, what would have happened to the church? The church would have died before it was born. The Father knew this, which is most likely why he hid this even from his beloved Son.  
Your thoughts

[1213]

...as "Son of God" 100% God...

Are also other children of God, God?

But as many as received him, to them he gave the right to become God’s children, to those who believe in his name: who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
John 1:12-13

1213, Jesus acknowledged the uppercase "S" in the "Son of God," while you write lowercase "c" to "children," to me your confirmation that they are not God.

Sorry, I don't think the uppercase makes the word mean the God.

[Capbook]

...as "Son of God" 100% God...

Are also other children of God, God?

But as many as received him, to them he gave the right to become God’s children, to those who believe in his name: who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
John 1:12-13

1213, Jesus acknowledged the uppercase "S" in the "Son of God," while you write lowercase "c" to "children," to me your confirmation that they are not God.

Sorry, I don't think the uppercase makes the word mean the God.

It did, as the Father testified about the Son, Your throne, O God.
Here's a simple logic;
1. Jesus as the "Son of man" as His mother is Mary, is He man or not?
2. Jesus as the "Son of God" as His Father is God, is He God or not?
Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second 1213?

[BruceLeiter]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #50]

You're very welcome, @placebofactor!

[Mr E]

[Replying to BruceLeiter in post #49]

I believe on the basis of Scripture, @placebofactor, that Jesus is fully God and fully human.

And which scripture, specifically is that belief founded upon?

[Capbook]

[Replying to BruceLeiter in post #49]

I believe on the basis of Scripture, @placebofactor, that Jesus is fully God and fully human.

And which scripture, specifically is that belief founded upon?

Jesus acknowledged that He is the "Son of man" and "Son of God." (Mat 26:63,64)
May I share again my Post#52, just this simple logic;
1. Jesus as the "Son of man" as His mother is Mary, is He 100% man or not?
2. Jesus as the "Son of God" as His Father is God, is He God or not?
Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second Mr. E?

[1213]

...as "Son of God" 100% God...

Are also other children of God, God?

But as many as received him, to them he gave the right to become God’s children, to those who believe in his name: who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
John 1:12-13

1213, Jesus acknowledged the uppercase "S" in the "Son of God," while you write lowercase "c" to "children," to me your confirmation that they are not God.

Sorry, I don't think the uppercase makes the word mean the God.

It did, as the Father testified about the Son, Your throne, O God.
Here's a simple logic;
1. Jesus as the "Son of man" as His mother is Mary, is He man or not?
2. Jesus as the "Son of God" as His Father is God, is He God or not?
Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second 1213?

Sorry, I don't think it is the honest logical answer, because according to Jesus there is only one true God. And also because other children of God are not God. Or what say you, should all children of God, righteous people, be called Gods by your logic? Why only Jesus?

But as many as received him, to them he gave the right to become God’s children, to those who believe in his name: who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
John 1:12-13
…He who does righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. To this end the Son of God was revealed, that he might destroy the works of the devil. Whoever is born of God doesn't commit sin, because his seed remains in him; and he can't sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are revealed, and the children of the devil. Whoever doesn't do righteousness is not of God, neither is he who doesn't love his brother.
1 John 3:7-10

[Capbook]

Are also other children of God, God?

But as many as received him, to them he gave the right to become God’s children, to those who believe in his name: who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
John 1:12-13

1213, Jesus acknowledged the uppercase "S" in the "Son of God," while you write lowercase "c" to "children," to me your confirmation that they are not God.

Sorry, I don't think the uppercase makes the word mean the God.

It did, as the Father testified about the Son, Your throne, O God.
Here's a simple logic;
1. Jesus as the "Son of man" as His mother is Mary, is He man or not?
2. Jesus as the "Son of God" as His Father is God, is He God or not?
Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second 1213?

Sorry, I don't think it is the honest logical answer, because according to Jesus there is only one true God. And also because other children of God are not God. Or what say you, should all children of God, righteous people, be called Gods by your logic? Why only Jesus?

But as many as received him, to them he gave the right to become God’s children, to those who believe in his name: who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
John 1:12-13
…He who does righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. To this end the Son of God was revealed, that he might destroy the works of the devil. Whoever is born of God doesn't commit sin, because his seed remains in him; and he can't sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are revealed, and the children of the devil. Whoever doesn't do righteousness is not of God, neither is he who doesn't love his brother.
1 John 3:7-10

1213, may we know your answer to question no. 1?

1. Jesus as the "Son of man" as His mother is Mary, is He 100% man or not?

[OneJack]

1213, Jesus acknowledged the uppercase "S" in the "Son of God," while you write lowercase "c" to "children," to me your confirmation that they are not God.

Sorry, I don't think the uppercase makes the word mean the God.

It did, as the Father testified about the Son, Your throne, O God.
Here's a simple logic;
1. Jesus as the "Son of man" as His mother is Mary, is He man or not?
2. Jesus as the "Son of God" as His Father is God, is He God or not?
Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second 1213?

Sorry, I don't think it is the honest logical answer, because according to Jesus there is only one true God. And also because other children of God are not God. Or what say you, should all children of God, righteous people, be called Gods by your logic? Why only Jesus?

But as many as received him, to them he gave the right to become God’s children, to those who believe in his name: who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
John 1:12-13
…He who does righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. To this end the Son of God was revealed, that he might destroy the works of the devil. Whoever is born of God doesn't commit sin, because his seed remains in him; and he can't sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are revealed, and the children of the devil. Whoever doesn't do righteousness is not of God, neither is he who doesn't love his brother.
1 John 3:7-10

1213, may we know your answer to question no. 1?

1. Jesus as the "Son of man" as His mother is Mary, is He 100% man or not?

Bear in mind that Jesus is the name of God. The Son of God, on the other hand, was the man who was born of Mary and the physical vessel of God [whose name is Jesus, or Immanuel, or Mighty God, or Eternal Father] in His incarnation. Mary is not the mother of Jesus because Jesus is the Almighty God who dwelt in the man who was born of Mary. The same is true to the Son of God, who was a creation from the Holy Spirit.

[1213]

...
1. Jesus as the "Son of man" as His mother is Mary, is He 100% man or not?

The Bible tells Jesus is a man, therefore my answer is, yes.

For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
1 Tim. 2:5

[Capbook]

...
1. Jesus as the "Son of man" as His mother is Mary, is He 100% man or not?

The Bible tells Jesus is a man, therefore my answer is, yes.

For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
1 Tim. 2:5

Now, may we know your answer on question no. 2?

2. Jesus as the "Son of God" as His Father is God, is He 100% God or not?
Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second 1213? Care enough to explain?