Can science really disprove somethings existence?

Creationism, Evolution, and other science issues

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achilles12604
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Can science really disprove somethings existence?

Post #1

Post by achilles12604 »

Usually the argument goes something like this . . .

Theist: God exists.

Science: How do you know?

Theist: 1) origin of the universe, biblical history, personal experience, origin of life, etc

Science: And how do you know that the universe didn't just pop into being without God. Your personal experience doesn't count as evidence, and history can be wrong.

Theist: Well what makes you think God doesn't exist.

science: I am totally unable to detect any sign of him at all and science is the best method we have for detecting and studying things in the universe.






achilles12604 wrote:
Furrowed Brow wrote:
achilles12604 wrote:You don't need to answer. My point is very simply that bible thumpers and science thumpers sometimes have similar issues regarding their claims of total knowledge. Neither can truly get the whole picture alone.
But what picture is this? Lets say there is more to this world than science knows. How do we know this? What methodology do we deploy? And the point I’ve been banging on about over several threads the last few days is the only correct method for addressing reality is naturalism because only naturalism can meet the full set of criteria: prediction, verification, falsification and assigns a clear definition to all the signs it deploys in its answers. Any explanation that fails to meet this benchmark is intellectually vacuous. Regardless of the depth of conviction of any given non naturalistic belief.

However I detect that this point is not lost on you achilles because you make great attempts to rationalise your belief system, and I know you think that what is supernatural is only what science does not yet understand. That is easy for a full blown naturalist to admit. What we cannot admit is that the theist can fill in the gaps.
I guess this is where some degree of theistic faith comes in. Hey that gives me a thought. Is faith provable by science? For example, would science be able to determine someone's beliefs? If science is unable to determine someone's beliefs and faith, does that mean that the person's faith does not exist?
My questions for discussion.

Is science able to determine someone's beliefs without being told? Another possible question to clarify this point is can science prove that someone who is now dead, had beliefs while alive?

If silence is maintained and a person's beliefs can not be determined, does this mean the beliefs do not exist?
Last edited by achilles12604 on Thu Dec 27, 2007 4:51 am, edited 1 time in total.
It is a first class human tragedy that people of the earth who claim to believe in the message of Jesus, whom they describe as the Prince of Peace, show little of that belief in actual practice.

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Post #21

Post by achilles12604 »

Furrowed Brow wrote:
achilles12604 wrote:Marriage is a poor analogy in this case as it is a "real" or tangible thing. Ideas or "faiths" are different from marriage in several ways. Marriage is ineffective by ones self. It is not contained within he person. In many ways there are items associated with marriage. Only the last one is applicable to faiths and then only if they choose to employ them. I for one do not wear a cross, or have fish on the back of my car. But I still have faith and beliefs associated with that faith.
Okay. Faith. Again I pursue the line that a within/without, inner/outer dichotomy is - though the common way of talking - a conceptual mistake when dealing with the mind/person. What is it about faith that is contained in the person that is not exhibited by behaviour?

Lets take two twins Joe and Moe. Lets say they both behave in exactly the same way. And lets say both exhibit no behaviours that would lead any observer to tell that either had faith. Neither go to church, read scripture or do or saying thing with any religious connotation. Lets say their behaviour are as identical as their DNA.

Now lets say each answers a tick box questionnaire. The first question is “Do you have faith in God?”. Moe ticks the no box, but for the first time ever Joe behaves in a different way to his twin and ticks the yes box. This is the only behaviour which has ever distinguished the two. Has Joe got something Moe has not?

What does it even mean for Joe to tick yes. He never prays. Never makes any commitments that Moe does not make. Does Joe even understand what faith means?

Lets say Moe has seen that Joe has ticked the faith box. Puzzled Moe points out that Joe blasphemes just like he does, that Joe subscribes to evolution and the best scientific theories available. When they talk about the creation of the universe both do not subscribe to any supernatural theories. In fact that is the next question they answered. To the question did God create the universe both Moe and Joe ticked No. In fact both are pretty scathing about scripture and all religious writings.

Moe points out this inconsistency to Joe and asks him again why he ticked the faith box. Joe shrugs and say that is the answer he felt he should tick, and that by ticking the box he is reporting a personal inner relationship he has with God.

‘What relationship?’ asks Moe a little exasperated..
‘My inner relationship’. Replies Joe. ‘Because it is within me you cannot see it?”

Ask to expand Joe declines. He tells Moe the tick in the box is all he has top say on the matter. Both give up on the conversation and go for a beer instead.

Over the next few years Joe and Moe’s behaviour mirror each other in every respect. No church, praying, scripture, or anything resembling a religious attitude ever manifest itself in either of their behaviours. Then over a beer one night Moe asks whether Joe still has that personal relationship with God.

‘Yep’ says Joe.
‘Well’ says Moe ‘I reckon anything you’ve got I must have too‘.
‘You got a relationship with god now?’ asks Joe.
‘Yep’ says Moe. ‘Must have if you’ve got one. We’re the same in every other respect.’

They say no more on the matter and go back to the beer and continue to live as they always have. Which is not very long. On the way home drunk driving both Joe and Moe are involved in some fatal accident. The funeral parlour attempts to ascertain their religious status. Asking friends and family the undertaker can find no suggestion that either Joe or Moe held any religious principles. Lets assume the undertakers enquiries are thorough, though he is missing is the questionaire and the last conversation Joe and Moe had over a beer. Otherwise he knows everything there is to know about Joe and Moe. There is absolutely nothing else to suggest either had faith.

In one last effort the undertaker digs up the questionnaire. As a result he decides to give Joe a religious service - though he wonders why. The undertaker suspects Joe probably ticked the wrong box by mistake. He give Moe a secular service.


Okay.....

Thanks for bearing with me on the tale of Joe and Moe. The point is that I’m hoping you would agree that Joe and Moe have a gossamer thin notion of what faith entails. What I am driving at is that the stuff that actually gives meaning to the word “faith” is the stuff that someone does, says, writes, and the social context in which these things occur. And it is not just Faith. No language is private because the sense and meaning of our words is public embedded in social context and an individuals behaviour within a social context.

Pain might be a vivid example. If we all were able to feel pain but no one ever exhibited pain behaviour I.e. people never retracted their hands from heat, or winced when they trapped their fingers in a car door, and people with heart attacks continued to work and chat until the very moment they dropped down dead, and then they'd fall to the ground chuckling not groaning - the word “pain” would make no sense. Like pain or pleasure you could say that faith is some personal experience. . But again the concept of “personal expereince” is meaningless without observable behaviour.
You have made a couple good points here. And interestingly they are for several different threads. You give me so many good ideas. Anyway, I think you have now made a point I can expand on and answer QED at the same time.


You made the point that sience requires observations in order to test things. Without observing Joe and Moe, science hasn't got a clue. If Joe simply walked into a test room by himself and told the scientists to determine if he was a believer or an atheist, science would totally be lost. Why?

Because science is limited to what it can test. This is the issue I have with the atheists claim that science does not bode well for religion. Richard Dawkins is one who firmly states that belief in God is stupid in light of scientific discovery. But this statement in itself is rediculous since science is totally unable to comment on God in any way.

If science is unable to comment yes or no, then is Dawkin's statement valid in any way?

QED states that in the future science may be able to determine someone's faith based on their brainwaves. While this is speculation and is therefore a non-falsifyable argument, it COULD happen. But WHY would this be able to occur in the future?

Because science has access to our minds to test and record and probe them until they get an answer. Now, if science is yet unable to test or probe something, is it possible to claim that the something simply doesn't exist until science discovers it? Another example is string theory. Go back 250 years and declare the possibility of the string theory. How likely is it that you would be hailed as a genius?

Science has progressed and suddenly a new possibility exists. But my question is does the possibility exist BECAUSE science discovered it? OR did the possibility exist all along and we were simply unable to test it at that time?

QED- This is my point. The way you put things it seems that until science discovers something it can not exist. But is this really a solid position to take?



Now let me restate my ultimate question.

If science is unable to comment on something, is it then fair to declare that something to be non-existent based on scientific research?
It is a first class human tragedy that people of the earth who claim to believe in the message of Jesus, whom they describe as the Prince of Peace, show little of that belief in actual practice.

Beto

Post #22

Post by Beto »

achilles12604 wrote:Richard Dawkins is one who firmly states that belief in God is stupid in light of scientific discovery. But this statement in itself is rediculous since science is totally unable to comment on God in any way.
Being "a believer" could be a mental illness, thus entirely under the scope of science. If eating the "wrong" food for long enough makes one's body become ill, "feeding" the brain with enough rubbish (my opinion of course) might have the same effect on the mind. Being able to measure this is simply a matter of time.
QED states that in the future science may be able to determine someone's faith based on their brainwaves. While this is speculation and is therefore a non-falsifyable argument, it COULD happen. But WHY would this be able to occur in the future?
Look around you. Doesn't science usually pull through? What should I trust more? The next scientific breakthrough or a second-coming (not even sure there was a first)? If it proves its own theory wrong, so much the better.
Science has progressed and suddenly a new possibility exists. But my question is does the possibility exist BECAUSE science discovered it? OR did the possibility exist all along and we were simply unable to test it at that time?
Like someone said, "the only thing "supernatural" in the Universe is our own ignorance".
QED- This is my point. The way you put things it seems that until science discovers something it can not exist. But is this really a solid position to take?
Doesn't science postulate on the Higgs boson, for instance?
Now let me restate my ultimate question.

If science is unable to comment on something, is it then fair to declare that something to be non-existent based on scientific research?
I think science can comment on everything with different degrees of certainty, so I find the premise rather fallacious.

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Post #23

Post by achilles12604 »

Beto wrote:
achilles12604 wrote:Richard Dawkins is one who firmly states that belief in God is stupid in light of scientific discovery. But this statement in itself is rediculous since science is totally unable to comment on God in any way.
Being "a believer" could be a mental illness, thus entirely under the scope of science. If eating the "wrong" food for long enough makes one's body become ill, "feeding" the brain with enough rubbish (my opinion of course) might have the same effect on the mind. Being able to measure this is simply a matter of time.
I never said that it couldn't in the future. In fact I mentioned it COULD measure it in time. But I also made clear that this was a side issue.
QED states that in the future science may be able to determine someone's faith based on their brainwaves. While this is speculation and is therefore a non-falsifyable argument, it COULD happen. But WHY would this be able to occur in the future?
Look around you. Doesn't science usually pull through? What should I trust more? The next scientific breakthrough or a second-coming (not even sure there was a first)? If it proves its own theory wrong, so much the better.
And when have I ever indicated that you shouldn't trust science? When did I ever say that science couldn't one day explain EVERYTHING? I love science. I am a physics major.

By all means trust science. I think you are totally missing my point. re-read my last 2 paragraphs above.
Science has progressed and suddenly a new possibility exists. But my question is does the possibility exist BECAUSE science discovered it? OR did the possibility exist all along and we were simply unable to test it at that time?
Like someone said, "the only thing "supernatural" in the Universe is our own ignorance".
I am afraid this did not address my question.
QED- This is my point. The way you put things it seems that until science discovers something it can not exist. But is this really a solid position to take?
Doesn't science postulate on the Higgs boson, for instance?
Your point?

Now let me restate my ultimate question.

If science is unable to comment on something, is it then fair to declare that something to be non-existent based on scientific research?
I think science can comment on everything with different degrees of certainty, so I find the premise rather fallacious.
And your position here is exactly what I am trying to clarify. How is it plausible for science to be able to claim that things don't exist when they currently lack the ability to even TEST them?

Let me put it another way. Is it not possible that in the future, science may evolve to the point of being able to test and prove God? Wouldn't this be as likely as evolving to disprove God?
It is a first class human tragedy that people of the earth who claim to believe in the message of Jesus, whom they describe as the Prince of Peace, show little of that belief in actual practice.

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Re: Can science really disprove somethings existence?

Post #24

Post by Hawkins »

achilles12604 wrote: Science: And how do you know that the universe didn't just pop into being without God. Your personal experience doesn't count as evidence, and history can be wrong.
Personal experience could be quite inspiring, such as the apple dropped on Isaac Newton's head.

Perhaps it's not sciense but our rationality assumes that our world universe is 3-dimensional. The next breakthrough is that we may explore into the realm, a realm with the assumption that this world/universe is multiple dimensional in nature, rather than as what we perceived as a 3D spatial environment.

Inspired by my experience;
It started with a strong feeling of entering a new space/dimension. I even thought for a while at that moment how to allow the scientists to discover this dimension. At the same time, I knew for sure that supernaturality is for real (kinda strong feeling. And it's because I felt it first before I saw everything else, that atleast confirmed what I felt was right).

I believe that when one's soul starts to leave off his body in a death process and remains conscious during the process, he'll see/perceive this dimension. Normal off body experience may or may not lead you to the same dimension, which I dont know.

I also believe that this is a spatial dimension only our souls will be able to perceive.

That usually leads me to think that we are created in such a way that we are unable to perceive the true reality which should be a multi-dimensional universe. We are made so because a 3D environment is simply much more beautiful than a more natural yet winding, curling and overlapping multiple dimensional space.

byofrcs

Re: Can science really disprove somethings existence?

Post #25

Post by byofrcs »

achilles12604 wrote:
byofrcs wrote:
achilles12604 wrote:.....
...
...
However I detect that this point is not lost on you achilles because you make great attempts to rationalise your belief system, and I know you think that what is supernatural is only what science does not yet understand. That is easy for a full blown naturalist to admit. What we cannot admit is that the theist can fill in the gaps.
I guess this is where some degree of theistic faith comes in. Hey that gives me a thought. Is faith provable by science? For example, would science be able to determine someone's beliefs? If science is unable to determine someone's beliefs and faith, does that mean that the person's faith does not exist?
My questions for discussion.

Is science able to determine someone's beliefs without being told?

If silence is maintained and a person's beliefs can not be determined, does this mean the beliefs do not exist?
Is the person themselves even able to determine their belief if they maintain silence ? The instance they attempt to remind themselves of their belief (even if it is in silence) then there will be brain activity.

As with any memory or program - you have to do something to see what it contains or does. Imagine the belief as a series of bits on a disk drive platter. Unless it is read then we would not know it exists.

So the person would have to think their belief back into temporary existence else neither the person nor "science" would know it existed anyway.

I would suggest that a suitable pattern of brain activity would be associated with certain beliefs (though that is just a theory of mine at this time though I think it has fairly good grounding) and thus using functional magnetic resonance imaging may be able to say that the belief exists. fMRI is in very early stages as far as I known and to analyse the images from a subject you would need a baseline set of results from other people to compare with.

With science there is little that is certain (you need maths for that and that isn't really a science per se) but it hinges on probability. Thus though the person may maintain silence (audible) that they try to not think of their belief to maintain their silence the existence of the belief could in all probability be measurable (ref: Dostoyevsky and the White Bear).

With Atheists obviously we have no belief in God and so there is no White Bear for us to not believe in the same brain sections may be stimulated by other thoughts but we interpret these in different ways. Still confused as to why one way needs so many Tax breaks !.
I seriously doubt that there is a specific brain pattern for beliefs. So feel free to support your point and I will retract mine. Silence only goes as far as silence and does not include thought.

So what of it? Can someone determine what beliefs someone has or had based on brain patterns? Are there different brain patterns for different religions? Are these patterns different if someone is a fundi or a liberal? Do atheists have brain patterns and if so are they the same as a theists?

You show me that people have specific brain patterns for beliefs and that atheists no not have these patterns at all and I will gladly conceed my point.
You have edited your original post quite dramatically to add "Another possible question to clarify this point is can science prove that someone who is now dead, had beliefs while alive? " which I feel doesn't clarify the question at all but dilutes the discussion. What's the policy on this ?. Unless its to correct some clanger of a typo I feel additions like this shouldn't be allowed.

That aside, I mentioned fMRI because I felt that this has already started down that path of looking at belief. You are probably wrong on the brain patterns for belief, e.g. see Different Areas Of The Brain Respond To c for a very recent example.

Obviously Atheists have beliefs too: it's a little disingenuous to ask "Do atheists have brain patterns..." as Atheism only addresses the issue of "God or Gods" and doesn't address other supernatural entities (be it Ghosts or even UFOs).

So clearly I feel you have to concede that science is able to identify beliefs and I would guess that if the right questions were asked when someone was undergoing a fMRI procedure then by using baselines of what fires on "Belief", "Disbelief" and "Uncertainty" you could dig down for specific beliefs. I guess this is what the companies looking at using fMRI for lie detection are also looking at.

We all have beliefs. The difference between Atheists and monotheists is probably negligible if we are all asked, say, do you believe in Saturn, Neptune or Thor ? Christian style Monotheists would say no to each of those and so would Atheists (as I have said before there is only a very small percentage of disbelief between most monotheists and an atheist given we're arguing about 1 god out of a couple of 1,000 gods. It is only when asked about specific subjects e.g. Jesus or God (the Christian one) that I guess there would be different firings.

Given I feel religion is cultural I would guess the same areas would fire for any kind of theist if asked about god in general rather than a specific version.

I think I have supported my point with sufficient evidence to address the OP. The addition of identifying beliefs when the body has died is highly unlikely and I am wondering if the mention of fMRI (which needs a living thinking brain !) triggered this additional twist.

What exactly do you expect here ?. What do you think causes specific beliefs ?. Are you expecting some genetic or chemical difference which you think hangs around after death ?.

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Re: Can science really disprove somethings existence?

Post #26

Post by achilles12604 »

byofrcs wrote:
achilles12604 wrote:
byofrcs wrote:
achilles12604 wrote:.....
...
...
However I detect that this point is not lost on you achilles because you make great attempts to rationalise your belief system, and I know you think that what is supernatural is only what science does not yet understand. That is easy for a full blown naturalist to admit. What we cannot admit is that the theist can fill in the gaps.
I guess this is where some degree of theistic faith comes in. Hey that gives me a thought. Is faith provable by science? For example, would science be able to determine someone's beliefs? If science is unable to determine someone's beliefs and faith, does that mean that the person's faith does not exist?
My questions for discussion.

Is science able to determine someone's beliefs without being told?

If silence is maintained and a person's beliefs can not be determined, does this mean the beliefs do not exist?
Is the person themselves even able to determine their belief if they maintain silence ? The instance they attempt to remind themselves of their belief (even if it is in silence) then there will be brain activity.

As with any memory or program - you have to do something to see what it contains or does. Imagine the belief as a series of bits on a disk drive platter. Unless it is read then we would not know it exists.

So the person would have to think their belief back into temporary existence else neither the person nor "science" would know it existed anyway.

I would suggest that a suitable pattern of brain activity would be associated with certain beliefs (though that is just a theory of mine at this time though I think it has fairly good grounding) and thus using functional magnetic resonance imaging may be able to say that the belief exists. fMRI is in very early stages as far as I known and to analyse the images from a subject you would need a baseline set of results from other people to compare with.

With science there is little that is certain (you need maths for that and that isn't really a science per se) but it hinges on probability. Thus though the person may maintain silence (audible) that they try to not think of their belief to maintain their silence the existence of the belief could in all probability be measurable (ref: Dostoyevsky and the White Bear).

With Atheists obviously we have no belief in God and so there is no White Bear for us to not believe in the same brain sections may be stimulated by other thoughts but we interpret these in different ways. Still confused as to why one way needs so many Tax breaks !.
I seriously doubt that there is a specific brain pattern for beliefs. So feel free to support your point and I will retract mine. Silence only goes as far as silence and does not include thought.

So what of it? Can someone determine what beliefs someone has or had based on brain patterns? Are there different brain patterns for different religions? Are these patterns different if someone is a fundi or a liberal? Do atheists have brain patterns and if so are they the same as a theists?

You show me that people have specific brain patterns for beliefs and that atheists no not have these patterns at all and I will gladly conceed my point.
You have edited your original post quite dramatically to add "Another possible question to clarify this point is can science prove that someone who is now dead, had beliefs while alive? " which I feel doesn't clarify the question at all but dilutes the discussion. What's the policy on this ?. Unless its to correct some clanger of a typo I feel additions like this shouldn't be allowed.
You are correct that I do alter and change my opinion. But is this really a bad thing? If you want stauch debates where neither side budges and clings desperately to their original view regardless of the evidence presented, then I highly suggest you do not debate with me. If you want to debate facts, and interpretations with a mind open to new possibilities and one who welcomes new information into its ever evolving understanding, then I am your guy.

Do you wish to continue our debate with this understanding? I am sure that there are theists here who will debate the staunch un-changing opinions if you would prefer this.
That aside, I mentioned fMRI because I felt that this has already started down that path of looking at belief. You are probably wrong on the brain patterns for belief, e.g. see Different Areas Of The Brain Respond To c for a very recent example.
Examining if the brain responds to stimuli is a far cry from reading someone's thoughts. However, I have allowed for this possibility and hence, as you noticed above, have had to alter my approach slightly. I suggest reading my discussion with QED and Furrowed Brow as their information has forced me to alter my attack slightly.



In fact, I think it might be beneficial if I did this for everyone on this thread.
It is a first class human tragedy that people of the earth who claim to believe in the message of Jesus, whom they describe as the Prince of Peace, show little of that belief in actual practice.

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Post #27

Post by achilles12604 »

Due to new evidence I have been forced to change up my argument slightly. My first argument was not totally solid, nor did it fully capture the essence of what I was trying to say because I chose an example which was sub-par.

So let me review . . .
achilles12604 wrote:
Furrowed Brow wrote:
achilles12604 wrote:Marriage is a poor analogy in this case as it is a "real" or tangible thing. Ideas or "faiths" are different from marriage in several ways. Marriage is ineffective by ones self. It is not contained within he person. In many ways there are items associated with marriage. Only the last one is applicable to faiths and then only if they choose to employ them. I for one do not wear a cross, or have fish on the back of my car. But I still have faith and beliefs associated with that faith.
Okay. Faith. Again I pursue the line that a within/without, inner/outer dichotomy is - though the common way of talking - a conceptual mistake when dealing with the mind/person. What is it about faith that is contained in the person that is not exhibited by behaviour?

Lets take two twins Joe and Moe. Lets say they both behave in exactly the same way. And lets say both exhibit no behaviours that would lead any observer to tell that either had faith. Neither go to church, read scripture or do or saying thing with any religious connotation. Lets say their behaviour are as identical as their DNA.

Now lets say each answers a tick box questionnaire. The first question is “Do you have faith in God?”. Moe ticks the no box, but for the first time ever Joe behaves in a different way to his twin and ticks the yes box. This is the only behaviour which has ever distinguished the two. Has Joe got something Moe has not?

What does it even mean for Joe to tick yes. He never prays. Never makes any commitments that Moe does not make. Does Joe even understand what faith means?

Lets say Moe has seen that Joe has ticked the faith box. Puzzled Moe points out that Joe blasphemes just like he does, that Joe subscribes to evolution and the best scientific theories available. When they talk about the creation of the universe both do not subscribe to any supernatural theories. In fact that is the next question they answered. To the question did God create the universe both Moe and Joe ticked No. In fact both are pretty scathing about scripture and all religious writings.

Moe points out this inconsistency to Joe and asks him again why he ticked the faith box. Joe shrugs and say that is the answer he felt he should tick, and that by ticking the box he is reporting a personal inner relationship he has with God.

‘What relationship?’ asks Moe a little exasperated..
‘My inner relationship’. Replies Joe. ‘Because it is within me you cannot see it?”

Ask to expand Joe declines. He tells Moe the tick in the box is all he has top say on the matter. Both give up on the conversation and go for a beer instead.

Over the next few years Joe and Moe’s behaviour mirror each other in every respect. No church, praying, scripture, or anything resembling a religious attitude ever manifest itself in either of their behaviours. Then over a beer one night Moe asks whether Joe still has that personal relationship with God.

‘Yep’ says Joe.
‘Well’ says Moe ‘I reckon anything you’ve got I must have too‘.
‘You got a relationship with god now?’ asks Joe.
‘Yep’ says Moe. ‘Must have if you’ve got one. We’re the same in every other respect.’

They say no more on the matter and go back to the beer and continue to live as they always have. Which is not very long. On the way home drunk driving both Joe and Moe are involved in some fatal accident. The funeral parlour attempts to ascertain their religious status. Asking friends and family the undertaker can find no suggestion that either Joe or Moe held any religious principles. Lets assume the undertakers enquiries are thorough, though he is missing is the questionaire and the last conversation Joe and Moe had over a beer. Otherwise he knows everything there is to know about Joe and Moe. There is absolutely nothing else to suggest either had faith.

In one last effort the undertaker digs up the questionnaire. As a result he decides to give Joe a religious service - though he wonders why. The undertaker suspects Joe probably ticked the wrong box by mistake. He give Moe a secular service.


Okay.....

Thanks for bearing with me on the tale of Joe and Moe. The point is that I’m hoping you would agree that Joe and Moe have a gossamer thin notion of what faith entails. What I am driving at is that the stuff that actually gives meaning to the word “faith” is the stuff that someone does, says, writes, and the social context in which these things occur. And it is not just Faith. No language is private because the sense and meaning of our words is public embedded in social context and an individuals behaviour within a social context.

Pain might be a vivid example. If we all were able to feel pain but no one ever exhibited pain behaviour I.e. people never retracted their hands from heat, or winced when they trapped their fingers in a car door, and people with heart attacks continued to work and chat until the very moment they dropped down dead, and then they'd fall to the ground chuckling not groaning - the word “pain” would make no sense. Like pain or pleasure you could say that faith is some personal experience. . But again the concept of “personal expereince” is meaningless without observable behaviour.
You have made a couple good points here. And interestingly they are for several different threads. You give me so many good ideas. Anyway, I think you have now made a point I can expand on and answer QED at the same time.


You made the point that sience requires observations in order to test things. Without observing Joe and Moe, science hasn't got a clue. If Joe simply walked into a test room by himself and told the scientists to determine if he was a believer or an atheist, science would totally be lost. Why?

Because science is limited to what it can test. This is the issue I have with the atheists claim that science does not bode well for religion. Richard Dawkins is one who firmly states that belief in God is stupid in light of scientific discovery. But this statement in itself is rediculous since science is totally unable to comment on God in any way.

If science is unable to comment yes or no, then is Dawkin's statement valid in any way?

QED states that in the future science may be able to determine someone's faith based on their brainwaves. While this is speculation and is therefore a non-falsifyable argument, it COULD happen. But WHY would this be able to occur in the future?

Because science has access to our minds to test and record and probe them until they get an answer. Now, if science is yet unable to test or probe something, is it possible to claim that the something simply doesn't exist until science discovers it? Another example is string theory. Go back 250 years and declare the possibility of the string theory. How likely is it that you would be hailed as a genius?

Science has progressed and suddenly a new possibility exists. But my question is does the possibility exist BECAUSE science discovered it? OR did the possibility exist all along and we were simply unable to test it at that time?

QED- This is my point. The way you put things it seems that until science discovers something it can not exist. But is this really a solid position to take?



Now let me restate my ultimate question.

If science is unable to comment on something, is it then fair to declare that something to be non-existent based on scientific research?
Thanks to QED and Furrowed for assisting in focusing the argument.

So given that science is learning new things everyday, I can conceed that in the future it may very well be able to determine someone's belief based on brain readings.

So now, my narrowed down questions

1) If science is unable to test something, is it valid in claiming said thing does not exist at all?

If yes, explain.

If no . . .

2) Are non-theists who claim lack of scientific evidence disproves God, presenting a valid argument?
It is a first class human tragedy that people of the earth who claim to believe in the message of Jesus, whom they describe as the Prince of Peace, show little of that belief in actual practice.

byofrcs

Post #28

Post by byofrcs »

achilles12604 wrote:.......
So now, my narrowed down questions

1) If science is unable to test something, is it valid in claiming said thing does not exist at all?

If yes, explain.

If no . . .

2) Are non-theists who claim lack of scientific evidence disproves God, presenting a valid argument?
1) Though you may not be able to test something that is claimed to exist but of which there is no evidence, you can test for what it is not. Every day you probably use Bayes' theorem to manage SPAM as this tells the program how to revise its belief in light of new evidence a posteriori. The SPAM doesn't exist until you see it and mark it SPAM so you have a criteria for what is not-SPAM before you see it. What you want to see is just the not-SPAM i.e. the real messages.

As the nature of what is god (or gods) is well documented in historical books (Torah, Bible, Quran etc) these texts can be used to both define what is not-SPAM and that which fails is discarded as SPAM.

With science, a hypothesis is stated (claimed). It is expected to be a true proposition in the real world but Bayes can be used to apply a probability to the truth value of this hypothesis and this is quite a valid approach. The real question is the same as with SPAM filters; are we erring on the side of too many false negatives ? Is there a message from "God" which has been discarded as SPAM ?.

Given the millions of people looking into the problem I suspect not to date and that we don't have to worry about this happening in the future. (Of course the joke could be on all of us in that 125,000 years ago the truth from the one true monkey god who revealed the secrets to life, the universe and everything was written in a simple but elegant script but it's currently buried under masses of coral in the Red Sea after an argument about the truth making things float or sink was soundly resolved when the only extant copy of the truth from the monkey god was written on stone tablets and attempted to be floated. It's all true.).

For question 2), you have to be more precise; non-theists who claim lack of scientific evidence disproves God are presenting a valid argument if they qualify that as not so much disprove but that the lack of evidence makes any god or improbable. Only strong atheists would claim that there is no god and there are few of these around (Dawkins is not an example here as he claims god is improbable).

So the few non-theists who claim lack of scientific evidence disproves (100%) God are not presenting a valid argument.

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Post #29

Post by achilles12604 »

byofrcs wrote:
achilles12604 wrote:.......
So now, my narrowed down questions

1) If science is unable to test something, is it valid in claiming said thing does not exist at all?

If yes, explain.

If no . . .

2) Are non-theists who claim lack of scientific evidence disproves God, presenting a valid argument?
1) Though you may not be able to test something that is claimed to exist but of which there is no evidence, you can test for what it is not. Every day you probably use Bayes' theorem to manage SPAM as this tells the program how to revise its belief in light of new evidence a posteriori. The SPAM doesn't exist until you see it and mark it SPAM so you have a criteria for what is not-SPAM before you see it. What you want to see is just the not-SPAM i.e. the real messages.

As the nature of what is god (or gods) is well documented in historical books (Torah, Bible, Quran etc) these texts can be used to both define what is not-SPAM and that which fails is discarded as SPAM.

With science, a hypothesis is stated (claimed). It is expected to be a true proposition in the real world but Bayes can be used to apply a probability to the truth value of this hypothesis and this is quite a valid approach. The real question is the same as with SPAM filters; are we erring on the side of too many false negatives ? Is there a message from "God" which has been discarded as SPAM ?.

Given the millions of people looking into the problem I suspect not to date and that we don't have to worry about this happening in the future. (Of course the joke could be on all of us in that 125,000 years ago the truth from the one true monkey god who revealed the secrets to life, the universe and everything was written in a simple but elegant script but it's currently buried under masses of coral in the Red Sea after an argument about the truth making things float or sink was soundly resolved when the only extant copy of the truth from the monkey god was written on stone tablets and attempted to be floated. It's all true.).
Is this a no? It was really wordy and I think you lost me somewhere (probably with the computer talk as I can not do SQUAT with a computer). If science is unable to test something, is it valid in claiming said thing does not exist at all? You said no, right?
For question 2), you have to be more precise; non-theists who claim lack of scientific evidence disproves God are presenting a valid argument if they qualify that as not so much disprove but that the lack of evidence makes any god or improbable. Only strong atheists would claim that there is no god and there are few of these around (Dawkins is not an example here as he claims god is improbable).

So the few non-theists who claim lack of scientific evidence disproves (100%) God are not presenting a valid argument.
This is a little closer to what I hold to be accurate so I can't disagree totally with you. Now of course we need to argue about improbable.

How does a study of science cause the existence of God to be improbable? How can Science even comment since its yes or no response is directly preceeded by tests and examinations? Without the examinations, how can science even comment?
It is a first class human tragedy that people of the earth who claim to believe in the message of Jesus, whom they describe as the Prince of Peace, show little of that belief in actual practice.

byofrcs

Post #30

Post by byofrcs »

achilles12604 wrote:
byofrcs wrote:
achilles12604 wrote:.......
So now, my narrowed down questions

1) If science is unable to test something, is it valid in claiming said thing does not exist at all?

If yes, explain.

If no . . .

2) Are non-theists who claim lack of scientific evidence disproves God, presenting a valid argument?
1) Though you may not be able to test something that is claimed to exist but of which there is no evidence, you can test for what it is not. Every day you probably use Bayes' theorem to manage SPAM as this tells the program how to revise its belief in light of new evidence a posteriori. The SPAM doesn't exist until you see it and mark it SPAM so you have a criteria for what is not-SPAM before you see it. What you want to see is just the not-SPAM i.e. the real messages.

As the nature of what is god (or gods) is well documented in historical books (Torah, Bible, Quran etc) these texts can be used to both define what is not-SPAM and that which fails is discarded as SPAM.

With science, a hypothesis is stated (claimed). It is expected to be a true proposition in the real world but Bayes can be used to apply a probability to the truth value of this hypothesis and this is quite a valid approach. The real question is the same as with SPAM filters; are we erring on the side of too many false negatives ? Is there a message from "God" which has been discarded as SPAM ?.

Given the millions of people looking into the problem I suspect not to date and that we don't have to worry about this happening in the future. (Of course the joke could be on all of us in that 125,000 years ago the truth from the one true monkey god who revealed the secrets to life, the universe and everything was written in a simple but elegant script but it's currently buried under masses of coral in the Red Sea after an argument about the truth making things float or sink was soundly resolved when the only extant copy of the truth from the monkey god was written on stone tablets and attempted to be floated. It's all true.).
Is this a no? It was really wordy and I think you lost me somewhere (probably with the computer talk as I can not do SQUAT with a computer). If science is unable to test something, is it valid in claiming said thing does not exist at all? You said no, right?
For question 2), you have to be more precise; non-theists who claim lack of scientific evidence disproves God are presenting a valid argument if they qualify that as not so much disprove but that the lack of evidence makes any god or improbable. Only strong atheists would claim that there is no god and there are few of these around (Dawkins is not an example here as he claims god is improbable).

So the few non-theists who claim lack of scientific evidence disproves (100%) God are not presenting a valid argument.
This is a little closer to what I hold to be accurate so I can't disagree totally with you. Now of course we need to argue about improbable.

How does a study of science cause the existence of God to be improbable? How can Science even comment since its yes or no response is directly preceeded by tests and examinations? Without the examinations, how can science even comment?
It is maybe in both cases. Very little in science is yes or no; you want maths if you want truth like that.

Like I said - the Holy Books tell us what to test for. Some books - such as the Quran - are very clearly claimed to be revelations from God, whereas the Bible has a lot murkier history.

We can actually use the Quran to cast doubts on the Christian god whilst the current leaders of these religions claim these are one and the same God. If, like some Christians , people say they are different Gods then I guess we have to divide the problem and cast doubt on both faiths in isolation.

Of course if theists now claim that no holy book can offer any clues as to the nature of God then science has nothing to test. I don't think that is the case is it ?. The Scripture or Quran are very clearly claimed to be the "word" of "god".

Cast doubts on those claims and you cast doubts on the origin.

The Science of the Bible and the Quran are a start. I'm not talking about flat or round Earth or other specious arguments but the sheer paucity of any new knowledge.

So whilst theists impose their rule on this temporal realm, science can comment on the validity of theist claims. Whilst the Pope ex cathedra in Munificentissimus Deus claims a human body is present in "heaven" then it can be argued that "heaven" occupies space (if not time) to accommodate the body and so science can question the probability of this given what we know of physics of the universe and claims of heavens and hells. For one I would be curious if the estimated 1 kilo (2 pounds) of bacteria that a human body has which are vital for the maintenance of human health were also assumed. If bacteria (which outnumber human cells 10 to 1) and yeasts and fungus were "filtered" in the "transport" then what about any viruses hiding in Mary's body ?. If they were filtered then what about prions ?....or does the transport also filter the difference between proteins resistant to proteases and those that are not.

Immediately fantastic claims are made without evidence then I think is more than reasonable to expect science to question the fantasy.

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