"Slavery" in the Bible

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"Slavery" in the Bible

Post #1

Post by POI »

Allow us readers to be very careful. We must make sure we identify the proper context here, to assure against hasty and/or self-serving conclusions.

Exodus 21:2-3:

"2 “If you buy a Hebrew servant, he is to serve you for six years. But in the seventh year, he shall go free, without paying anything. 3 If he comes alone, he is to go free alone; but if he has a wife when he comes, she is to go with him." <-- Okay, this seems clear enough, if you are a purchased Hebrew, with a wife, you are both to go free in year 7. :ok:

Exodus 21:4:

"4 If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the woman and her children shall belong to her master, and only the man shall go free." <-- Here is where things start to look sketchy for the modern-day believer. If the slave is provided with a wife, and they have kids, the wife and kids are to stay with the slave master. They are not to go free.

Exodus 21:5-6:

"5 “But if the servant declares, ‘I love my master and my wife and children and do not want to go free,’ 6 then his master must take him before the judges.[a] He shall take him to the door or the doorpost and pierce his ear with an awl. Then he will be his servant for life." <-- More uncomfortability for the Christian here. Without getting into the weeds, common sense suggests a special rule is made to trick the male Hebrew into remaining a slave for life.

Leviticus 25:44-46:

"44 “‘Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly." <-- More awkwardness for the believer, as the Bible reader clammers to find a rationale to make this passage not read the way it does.

Here is a basic definition of chattel slavery --> "Chattel slavery is full slavery in its traditional form whereby slaves are the complete property of their master, can be bought and sold by him and treated in any way that he wishes, which may include torture and other brutality, excessively bad working conditions, and sexual exploitation"

Looks like all the ingredients fit the given Bible description here, minus the torture. Wait a minute, this is covered in the rest of Exodus 21. (i.e.):

"20 “Anyone who beats their male or female slave with a rod must be punished if the slave dies as a direct result, 21 but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property." <-- So basically, since the slave is your property, beatings with impunity are acceptable. Just don't kill them.

For debate:

By applying common sense, does/did the Bible ever, and/or currently still sanction chattel slavery?

Again, by using common sense, can a believer effectively use the Bible in support of breeding chattel slaves?

************************

Before you answer, consider this.... Since the NT does not mention the abolition of 'slavery', and yet the Bible makes further proclamation(s) and/or addendums (in favor of retaining 'slavery',) this means the Bible is not against chattel slavery either. Further, the Christian may want to introduce the importance of the 'golden rule'. However, the specifics outweigh the generals. The specifics of the rules for engagement of slavery are outside the 'golden rule'. Otherwise, the Bible would be a one-pager. 'Slavery' is an expressed exception to the general rule. Thus, anytime a specific scenario is not invoked, yes, 'golden rule.'
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Re: "Slavery" in the Bible

Post #691

Post by ledgeRAILz »

The American Working Class Civilian Taxpayer has something similar to the Year Of Jubilee

it would be Social Security Income ?

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Re: "Slavery" in the Bible

Post #692

Post by POI »

ledgeRAILz wrote: Thu Jun 19, 2025 4:36 pm The American Working Class Civilian Taxpayer has something similar to the Year Of Jubilee

it would be Social Security Income ?
I have absolutely no idea what to do with this obscure and very random and unrelated response?

Below are the debate questions from the OP:

For debate:

By applying common sense, does/did the Bible ever, and/or currently still sanction chattel slavery?

Again, by using common sense, can a believer effectively use the Bible in support of breeding chattel slaves?

I've already argued that the answer to these two debate questions is Yes! If you disagree, please explain why?
In case anyone is wondering... The avatar quote states the following:

"I asked God for a bike, but I know God doesn't work that way. So I stole a bike and asked for forgiveness."

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Re: "Slavery" in the Bible

Post #693

Post by ledgeRAILz »

.

Sorry for not explaining myself

Year Of Jubilee was something like retirement here in the USA where every 50 years Hebrew citizens would have their property returned to them such as land and homes they previously owned before they went into debt or lost their property due to poverty or bad times,

NON HEBREWS - ALIENS - STRANGERS - FORIGNERS - did not receive this privilege and their debts must be paid off in full and they would remain a working class society who worked to completely pay off all debts.

I believe that there is some confusion or misinformation that is calling this as - SLAVERY

Can we please be provided with or be shown an example of slavery in the Bible - outside of this year of jubilee where it is mentioning how that all debts that foreigners, strangers and aliens have in Israel can be bought and sold

the debts that the strangers have can be transferred, sold and bought to another individual who can relocate the indentured / indebted worker to a new location - - a new individual can buy their workers debts and the alien / stranger must repay all debts here in - - - - Lev 25


???

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