Cnorman wrote:The problem might also be that there are theories of language and communication that so distort the perception of subjective reality that we do not notice how they do so.
Well actually yes. Most philosophical knots are those tied by philosophers. I tend towards the idea that philosophy works best as an intellectual therapy that releases us from the tying the knots in the first place.
So there are no such things as actual thoughts and emotions other than the words we use that are associated with them?
We have to be careful here otherwise we will be talking passed each other. But yes there is no mental state of jealousy, hope, wish, want, intention etc if by mental state you are invoking some model of the mind structured by states to which we can attach these words. States of jealousy, hope, wishes, desires and so forth are behaviors and the meaning of these words found not in some model of an
internal mind but embedded in social context.
To reach this conclusion requires a minimal theory of language – i.e. meaning is social. This can be demonstrated. To go further requires building both a theory of mind, and a more complicated theory of language, one that often invokes metaphysics e.g. platonic realms, and pushes different forms of dualism, and I’m saying none of this is necessary and it creates more of muddle than it solves.
If there are such things, how are they not separate and distinct from the words?
The meanings of words of emotion and thought are social because language is a social tool. There is no need to invoke inner realms or mental realms or mental states to give a foundation to the meaning of these words.
So private thoughts do not exist; and words themselves are thoughts, and there is no meaning behind them?
Why can I agree to this but somehow feel we are not on the same page?
What is YOUR theory of mind? Is there basically no such thing?
Basically……….a mind to which words like love, hate, jealousy, wishes, wants, desires, thoughts etc… are ascribed, do not literally exist. In this sense there are literally no mental states. I say this because all the meanings of all these words are embedded in the social space that exists between us.
If there is, might we not have at least a few basic ideas about how it works without being obliged to formulate a "massive" set of rules and laws and principles?
But when you go the road of using words that are taken from social contexts and then posit they signifying some internal state of mind…….you have created a theory of mind based on……what……words that are drawn from social behavior, context, narrative and grammar. On an everyday level this really is not important, but it is important when we begin to philosophize and theorize about how the mind works…..and take seriously there are such things as mental states.
I am beginning to understand why you do not believe in God. If absolutely everything must be completely analyzed and understood and explicitly explained in exhaustive detail, Square One will be difficult to leave behind.
I ain’t got off zero. But I don’t need to know everything, however what I do know has to be in correct logical order.
What, exactly, is the "problem of the logic of our language" that gives rise to this "theory of mind"? What is that theory, precisely?
The problem is that we take words whose meanings are socially embedded and turn them into some theory of a mental realm. The problem arises in many ways but I gave a clear indication of how grammar of language misleads with the example of “Ben is Jealous� and “Ben acts jealousy�. When we say Ben is Jealous there is a tendency to invoke some internal state of Ben that is the state of jealous, and when we do that we have a theory of mind formed from a slip of grammar….but most times that does not matter.
However it does matter when grammar leads to a view of the mind that leads to the mind/body problem…a problem that says there is either some form of mind/body dualism and that mental states and physical states are different things because emotions and thoughts are not material; or that mental concepts like jealousy, wishes, wants, thoughts etc map on to brain states, and are tokened by some physical mechanism. Either attempt to resolve the mind/body problem is an intellectual knot tied by language.
Why is no theory of mind needed?
Because there is no need to invoke internal mental states as real entities. A point made by Ben and his jealous actions. And I’m not saying human psychology does not need a theory I’m saying a theory of mind based on words like jealousy, wishes, hate, desires, self, thoughts and so forth is a category mistake.
Whatever goes on behind your eyes and my eyes and, I do not deny
feely stuff goes on, but the meaning of words are always social, and what cannot be put into language has no meaning.
What are the allegedly "intractable problems" that such a theory might cause - that are more intractable than the problems caused by your own theory?
I’ve mentioned the mind body problem…..and I ain’t got a theory of mind….I’m just pointing out that attention to our language shows that the mind/body problem is drawn from a conception of mind that is a grammatical mistake.
Does a theory of mind have to be exhaustively detailed and totally mapped out before it can be considered at all?
Not at all. But as a conceptualization it has to be well formed, and the concept of mind as a theory that posits real internal mind states is not well formed.
It seems to me that you are very close to saying that there is no such thing as "mind" at all, only language;
Pretty much, accept the mind is not an internal metaphysical organ, or an internal physical organ, it exists out there amongst us in our social narratives and actions. But really from where you are coming…yes there is no mind.
Does that really make sense to you?
Absolutely. Perfect sense in fact. What does not make sense is that aspect of me that is not social. So much so that the last sentence is itself nonsense…there is no such aspect that is meaningful…..and if I point you to the meaning of my signature……I’m hoping you are going to get it.
Doesn't the very sentence "the thought is conveyed by language" imply that the two are separate things?
It probably does. But why let grammar dictate a theory of mind? Actually this is itself a paradigm case of the kind of thing I’m on about. We talk a certain way, a way that contours how we think about a subject, and then imperceptibly we find ourselves seeing grammatical distinction as the form of reality, and then we end up positing thought as a distinct entity.
You seem to be saying that language IS thought, but you have just implicitly stated the opposite, no?
Language is thought. Language is also tricky and complicated. There may be a grammatical implication, and avoiding such grammatical implications is difficult, hence why people tend to think on certain lines about the mind.
One thing is conveyed by another. If they were the same, no transitive verb would be needed.
This kind of reinforces my point, you are letting grammar force a picture of mind on to your thinking. We all do this as a very natural way of talking, but as formal theory of mind this is one huge leap that creates the mind/body problem….a problem that is grammatical and not metaphysical or physical.
When we "explore different collections of words," what are we trying to find if there is no thought yet?
The words that best suit the context.
So "start the train" is the thought which is symbolized or expressed by word or gesture or signal. The thought is therefore a separate thing from its communication. QED.
Nope. The meaning of the thought is the action set in context, and both action and context are social. The symbol is the sign RA which elicits an agreed behavior; if I sat there and did not go, that means the sign RA does not symbolize “go�.
Again; a symbol or art can express a thought. Transitive verb. The two are separate things.
Again why are you letting grammar impose a theory of mind on you? Do you think this is a firm foundation for a theory of human behavior and actions?
But according to what you are saying, there can be no "translation." The meaning of a set of words is the only one possible. They represent nothing behind them that can be translated; the words themselves (or the painting or whatever) are the thought, and there is nothing else.
No the meaning of the thought is out there in our social space. To translate one into the other is to translate one social context into another. If the painting offers a view or strikes an attitude, we find our own context in to which we put ourselves and from which we find a translation.
Does this really make sense to you?
Completely
As I said, you yourself seem to have indicated the former. Why you keep trying to make the latter work is a mystery to me.
Excellent…we are getting somewhere.
What about the inarguable fact that the meanings of words are often flexible and ambiguous?
No argument from me there. Language is complex, words fit into different contexts, and it is the context that provides the meaning. Ambiguity means a word is used in more than one way, irony means a word is used more than one way, but all the ways a word may be used can be contextualized and where it cannot then the word has no meaning.
(And as an aside: this is why religious language fails as a metaphor).
Example, one of millions; "The Democratic Party (or Labor, in your world) tends toward socialism."
Do you think that sentence carries the same implications and subtexts for everyone? Is it a positive or negative observation, for starters?
At no point am I saying language and what people think is simple or easily defined, or that language and people are not complex.
So the political slogan shares the same meaning for those who share the same subtext. It has the same implication for those whose share the same circumstances, it is positive or negative for those who share the same views. I’m not saying everyone has to share the contexts, histories, outlooks etc. And I'm not saying people are not able to negiatiate more than one meaning.
If what you say is true, why are there such things as "misunderstandings," and why are they so common? Are they not cases wherein two people attribute different meanings to the same words?
Yes there are. Life and people are complicated and we do not all share the same contexts. As evidence by our little misunderstanding the other day. But so long as we can share context we can share meanings….there may be an understanding but they can be cleared up….tick…..unless there is no shared context. But no one can think something they are unable to share with someone else, though that does not mean they will be able to share it with everyone.
Does this really make sense to you?
O yes.
What about when you can't find the words to express what you are thinking? When you can't make others understand? Is there then no actual thought that you are trying to convey - you are just mistaken to think that you have one?
What you are trying to find is a meaning, and you can’t convey that thought until it is formed and you need language to form a meaningful thought. What I am denying is some physical/metaphysical theory that has thought event prior to expression of the meaning of the thought. The only reason to begin to make that separation is grammatical.
If thoughts are words, why can't I find the ones that fit?
Words are thoughts, I allowing sign language, body language, physical signal systems like road lights… etc as thinking……but anyhow…..maybe the problems and context with which you engage or difficult, the right fit is not easy to find, and it is not like you see the whole problem in one go before you go looking for the right words. Okay metaphor: this metaphor does not demonstrate or prove what I am saying it is just a means to allow you to see where I’m at: thinking is not the lid of a jigsaw box, you see the picture then go looking for the right pieces to make the picture…..thinking is a jigsaw, the picture formed as you put the pieces together, and the context into which you try to fit those pieces tells you if they work in that context or not.
Fit what?" seems to be the answer, and it is inadequate.
The social context.
Does this really make sense to you?
Utterly.
Am I right in understanding that you say there is such a thing as "feeliness," but that it has no significance to thought- and in fact is a result of the words or gestures we use?
Feeliness is a word that is a sign of desperation on my part, it gets close to where language runs aground. What I’m saying is that the feely part of what goes on behind your eyes, is not structured by mental states….because literally there are no mental states of jealousy, lust, wishes, thoughts etc.
Is there no such thing as a state of mind, which is of course what is meant by "internal state"? Is there nothing behind the expression or the gesture, only the gesture itself?
Nothing meaningful and certainly not what you would call a mental state.
Is there no such thing as a mental, aka "internal" state?
Correct.
What about a phony smile that is worn to conceal hatred or anger? According to what you are saying here, there can be no such thing. There is no mental, aka "internal" state, but only the smile. No conflict is possible.
Let's say Bob raises a hand as if to shake Ben’s but then puts his thumb to his nose. Bob knew he was going do that before he put his hand out in fake gesture. I do not deny people have plans of actions, that they appreciate how the jigsaw can be fitted together in different ways and different contexts. But that fore knowledge reveals itself in subtle physical actions that prime us to act one way and not another, maybe words are said silently to oneself. And I am not saying people are not sufficiently sophisticated organisms to mask tells. What I am saying there is no mental engine working all this out prior to the deception…..that is to say a mind structured by emotions, thoughts, intentions etc.
How can they be a "mode" of thinking when they stand alone? If words ARE thoughts, how can there be another "mode" of thinking?
Ok to fill this out a little more:
Words in social context>>>>>>>>Thought
Body language in social context>>>>>>Thought
Sign language in social context>>>>>>Thought
The common factor is that they each express a meaning in a given social context.
If a certain hand signal or a certain color of lantern or a certain sound or certain words can all indicate the same thing - e.g., "stop the train" - is it not clear that the thought is separate from the "mode" of communication, and not identical with it?
The thought is embedded in the social space, and the meaning of the mode of communication. But to negotiate that space and express meaning then you need a language; which means we have agreed behaviors either implicit or explicit that allow the words or sign to convey a meaning. And where agreement we have a language….and only do our words and signs have meaning…..and all this occurs between and amongst us, and not in some internal state of mind.
Ho, hum.... Perhaps you can explain precisely what that certain theory of mind is, precisely how it is the product of the grammar or our language, and most importantly, exactly why it is wrong and in what ways.
It is wrong because it takes what is patently social and is mislead by the grammar of the social language. The mistake starts when we let the grammar of language lead us into thinking our words and concepts signify some internal mind state when they tangibly signify public behaviors set in social contexts. The mistake balloons into a mega mistake when we then invoke either metaphysics or materialism to try and explain how we have internal minds.
Explain what you mean and prove it.
Language is self evidently a social event. I have given example of how language works in social contexts; how a sentence can be rephrased in terms of actions and behavior to alleviate the tendency to invoke an internal state of mind, and this is possible mind without radically changing meaning. The mind/body problem is intractable and demonstrates a conceptual mistake is being made. Taken together these make for a solid position. A position that may be weakened if you can provide a non grammatical reason why we need to invoke a mind.
What is your theory of mind?
I have not got one. But if you push me....we have behavior, actions, social contexts, brain chemistry, a nervous system, and these are sufficient to explain what and who we are……save the feely bit, which can’t be put into language and……….to take us back to the phrase that got us into this pickle……the feely bit is
technically speaking meaningless…..and certainly not structured by states of emotions, wants, wishes, desires, thoughts etc.
As nearly as I can tell, you decline to even think about it because it's easier to simply define thought as communication, not because that necessarily reflects reality.
It necessarily reflects how words and signs derive their meaning, and it refuses to create a theory of mind/reality formed out of a misunderstanding of language.
If there is no thought before the words are chosen, how do we know what words to choose?
How many years did it take you to learn how to talk, and then how many years to learn the complexities of language and how words can work different affects in different contexts. How does a gymnast know how to back flip, or a chess player choose the next move……plenty of practice, learnt behavior, memory, and in the case of language use the ability to differentiate contexts of use. So a complex organ like a brain is needed to organize different stimuli and differentiate alternative responses to stimuli. However that answer takes us down a road I don’t have to travel to show where the mistake lies that leads to us posit a mind.
"How are thoughts formed?" and "What comes before a thought that allows a thought to be formed?" are still perfectly legitimate questions even when thoughts are defined as words, are they not?
Well not really, or at least not in the way I think you are thinking. A thought is public and embedded in social behavior, so to form a thought you need a society and agreed (implicit or explicit) patterns of behavior. A thought is not a discrete internal event of an internal mind. There is no need to explain how such a thing might be formed……therein lies the mistake.
Forgive me, but that's nonsense. Zeno's paradox supposedly proves that it is impossible to move from point A to point B in the same way.
Forgiven. An infinite regress certainly is nonsense.
Positing the actual existence of thoughts does not imply the need for prior unconscious thoughts, and certainly does not imply an infinite regression.
So to avoid it you posit….what a metaphysical realm inhabited by thoughts and emotions or you think these are tokened by brain states? And what problem does this try to solve and fail to solve....a real problem or a grammatical problem?
The origin of thought is not the question anyway, but its existence as something distinct from the words used to express it; and as I said, the origin of thought is still a mystery even if thoughts are defined as words.
It ain’t a mystery at all if you go back to language and grammar and see how we invoke the
mystery.
Where do the words come from?
Noises or ink on the page that follow regular patters, patterns that are an agreement between language users. The agreement taking place in a public social space.
What precedes them?
No agreement then partial and inconsistent agreement………then a dictionary.
From what I can see here, it is not I who am lost in the limitations of language, but you. You are discarding your own perceived subjective reality in favor of language theory and an insistence on a detailed and coherent structure that may or may not exist.
I am not insisting on any detailed structure….I am however insisting on coherency…..and invoking an internal mind drawn from language whose meanings are inherently social is not coherent. Then you factor in that there is no evidence of such an internal mind, an evidentless thing that brings its own mysterious and intractable problems, and then you might get a better understating of why I’m offering the most consistent and coherent of positions.